Third Term Examination Questions 2019/2020 Session for all Subject – Senior Secondary School ( SSS 1, SSS 2)
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT: COMMERCE CLASS: SS 1
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- One major disadvantage of a departmental store is that it _______ (a) it provides variety of goods (b) spread risks (c) require huge capital (d) none of the above
- One of this factors is not a difference between a supermarket and hypermarket _______ (a) space (b) price (c) varieties (d) location
- The system that allows a customer to do shopping all alone is known as ________ (a) discount service (b) self service (c) retailing (d) cooperative service
- One advantage of a wholesaler is that its _____ price (a) fluctuates (b) stabilizes (c) changes (d) none of the above
- ______ is the last link in the chain of distribution (a) retailer (b) consumer (c) distributor (d) wholesaler
- A warehouse where the wholesaler store goods awaiting demand is called ________ warehouse (a) bonded (b) public (c) ordinary (d) state
- The duties imposed on imported goods are called ______ (a) taxes (b) tariffs (c) levies (d) quota
- The surplus goods of a country that is sent to other countries of the world is called ________ (a) import (b) export (c) exchange (d) trade
- Which of the following is a fixed asset (a) stock (b) loan (c) land (d) debtors
- which of the following is a current asset_______ (a) stock (b) land (c) debtors (d) creditors
- which of the following is a current liability ______ (a) land (b) motor van (c) creditors (d) capital
- Before the use of money _______ was the method of transaction (a) cheque (b) barter system (c) postal order (d) none of the above
- ________ is a documents of title (a) dock warrant (b) invoice (c) licence (d) bill of lading
- The order that allows an exporter to buy good from a specify agent is known as____ (a) close indent (b) trade by barter (c) open indent (d) legal fact
- F.O.B means ______ (a) first on board (b) free on ballot (c)free on board (d) free on business
- ______ will later be exchange for the bill of lading (a) weigth note (b) Franco (c) mate’s receipt (d) Ship manifest
- When the total receipt of a country for export is less than her payment for import there is_______(a) surplus (b) deficit (c) balance (d) equilibrium
- Quota means ______ (a) outright ban (b) quantity limitation (c) price (d) none of the above
- A document that shows where goods are coming from is known as ______ (a) bill of sight (b) certificate of origin (c) dock warrant (d) none of the above
- The term that shows that quoted price includes cost of insurance,freight and all delivery charges is called _______ (a) F.O.R (b) F.O.B (c) Franco (d) F.A.S
THEORY: attempt any four question
1. What is mail order business? (b) Give five features of a mail order business
2. (a) What do you understand by multiple shops (b) what are the advantages of multiple shops
3. (a) what is division of labour? (b) List and explain four limitations to division of labour
4 give reasons why small scale retail outlets continue to exit despite stiff competition from the larger once
5. (a) what is balance of trade (b) list at least five ways in which balance of payment deficit can be corrected
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT; FINANCIAL ACCOUNT CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The main purpose of preparing trading account is to ascertain (a) cash sales to customers only (b) gross profit (c) net profit (d) both credit and cash sales
- The difference between sales and cost of sales is the___? (a) commission (b) net profit (c) gross profit (d) cost of goods available
- A provision which amount cannot be ascertain is known as (a) bad debt (b) doubtful debt (c) depreciation (d) reserves
- ______ is set aside to strengthen the financial position of a firm (a) general reserves (b) specific reserves (c) cash at bank (d) none of the above
- The drawings account of a sole proprietor is transferred to the (a) capital account (b) debit side of trading account (c) credit side of profit and loss account (d) current liabilities in the balance sheet
- Which of the following shows the stock at start of an accounting period? (a) current assets in the balance sheet (b ) current liabilities in the balance sheet (c) trading account (d) profit and loss account
- Discount allowed would appear on the (a) fixed asset in the balance sheet (b) debit side of trading account (c) long term liabilities in the balance sheet (d) debit side of profit and loss account
- The concept of double entry book-keeping states that (a) if you receive goods on credit, the seller becomes your creditor (b)for every debit entry there is a corresponding credit entry party (c) purchases and sales are stated separately (d) for every seller there is a buyer
- A system that allow the same amount to be written off as yearly depreciation is known as __ (a) an adjustment account (b) reducing balance (c) straight line (d) annuity
- Loan is a good example of_______ (a) assets (b) current liability (c) long term liability (d) capital
- Carriage inward expenses of a business is treated in (a) trading account (b) balance sheet (c) appropriation account (d) profit and loss account
- A deduction from the sales price of goods that is allowed if payment is made within a specified period of time is (a) trade discount (b) cash discount (c) quantity discount (d) rebate
- ________ is not a component of a trading account (a) purchases (b) sales (c) gross profit (d) net profit
- Which of the following error affects the trial balance? (a) commission (b) omission (c) principle (d) single entry
- The addition of purchases, carriage inward and opening stock is______ (a) net profit (b) cost of goods sold (c) cost of goods available for sales (d) gross profit
- Which of the following does not belong to the group? (a) proprietor of a business (b) an entrepreneur (c) an investor (d) a debtor
- Which of the following is not a liability? (a) accrued wages (b) rent arrear (c) prepayment (d) insurance due
- The balance of the provision for depreciation account is shown in the (a) trial balance as a debit (b) trial balance as a credit (c) balance sheet as a fixed asset (d) balance sheet as a current liabilities
- A trader set aside from his
private fund N1500 for business purpose the
N1500 would be referred to as (a) capital (b) loan (c) reserve (d) drawing
- Reserves are basically divided into ___________ (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) none of the above
PART B: Theory-Answer 4 questions only
- (a)
what is depreciation (b) list and
explain two methods of depreciation
- draw up a comprehensive format of a trading and profit and loss account as well as a balance sheet
- write short notes on the following:
a. Revenue reserves
b. Capital reserves
c. Provision for bad debts
d. Discount allowed and Discount received
4. The cost
of a machine is N10, 000.
The residual value is N4,
000. it is expected to last for 5 years using the straight line method prepare the depreciation schedule.
5. (a) what is reserve (b) differentiate between reserves and provisions.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT: C.R.K CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The prayer where people commit themselves anew to God is ____ (a) prayer of adoration (b) prayer of supplication (c) prayer of dedication (d) prayer of confession
- _____ is not among effectiveness of prayer (a) faith (b) wisdom (c) love (d) steadfastness
- All are factors that can hinder prayer except ____ (a) love (b) faithless (c) sin (d) asking wrongly
- _____ and ____ _ are conditions for effective prayer (a) love and kindness (b) steadfastness and wisdom (c) fasting and praying (d) perseverance and faith
- Christian are expected to subjected themselves to every human institution and ____ (a) law of the land (b) civil authorities (c) highest authorities (d) government authority
- Persecution is an act of _____ (a) molesting (b) greeting (c) stressing (d) gisting
- Christianity involves____ (a) loving oneself (b) self denial (c) saving grace (d) steadfastness
- Christians should be reproach for _____ (a) murder (b) wrong doing (c) stealing (d) Christ sake
- What according to Peter should be the right attitude to persecution (a) glorify God (b) be ashame (c) self pity (d) be angry
- Prayer is very important in the life of ____ (a) Christian (b) pagan (c) idol worshippers (d) trader
- What is humility (a) ability to show ones worth (b)belief in personal ambition (c) lowliness of mind (d) devoid of pride and arrogance
- In time of discouragement and disillusionment, Christians should ____ (a) pray (b) cry (c) worry (d) dance
- To tempt means ____ (a) to do something wrong (b) commit adultery (c) sin (d) make a person do something wrong.
- One of this is the consequence of sin (a) blessing (b) loving (c) suffering (d) peace
- The life in Christ is based on ____ (a) grace of God (b) human wisdom (c) strength (d) personal appeal and determination
- Family is the smallest unit of the ____ (a) school (b) church (c) society 9d) community
- The responsibility of the father is ___ (a) love their wives (b) ignore their wives (c) worship their wives (d) beat their wives
- Someone who pay his taxes rates and levies is ____ (a) good neighbour (b) a good citizen (c) good friend (d) a lawyer.
- Faith means ____ (a) arrogant and harshness (b) trust and belief (c) wisdom and intelligent (d) kind and humble.
- To be partial means _____ (a) happy and kind (b) honest and religious (c) privileged and obedience (d) discriminate and unjust.
SECTION B: Answer 4 questions only
1a. Define prayer (b) Name and explain the types of prayer (c) Give the effectiveness of prayer
2a. With reference to St. Peter, what are the characteristic of Christian life in the community
(b) State the behavioral patterns which Peter recommended for Christians servants living among non-Christians
3a. According to Peter, Christians should be what? (b) List, some of, how Peter admonished Christian leader
4. Write briefly on how Mathew gives the account of Jesus temptation
5. (A) Define persecution; (B). According to Peter, how should a Christian responds to persecution?
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION /2019/2020
SUBJECT: C.R.K CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- God is a consuming fire but he is slow to ____ (a) happiness (b) anger (c) kindness (d) giving
- One of these is not the theme of Amos prophesy as summed up in the book of Amos (a) the judge took bribe (b) the poor were robbed (c) the poor were loved (d) there were cases of force slavery
- True repentance and forsaking sins always attracts God’s ____ () anger (b) mercy (c) unforgiveness (d) punishment
- David laid with _____ wife (a) Arab’s (b) Elijah’s (c) Uriah’s ( d) Solomon
- The first of God’s commandments forbids the Israelites from _____ (a) loving their neightbours (b) worshipping another gods (c) committing adultery (d) stealing
- When Elijah prepared his offering, he request the prophets to ____ (a) pour water on the offering (b) bring the offering (c) celebrate with the offering (d) keep the offering
- In the case of Ahab, his greed led to the destruction of ____ (a) future (b) happiness (c) house (d) generation
- Gehazi was moved by ____ (a) greed (b)joy (c) love (d) humility
- Naaman was told to dip himself in river ____ (a) Jordan (b)Canaan (c) Jopper (d) Jericho
- Parent have the responsibility to give their children ____ (a) proper training and discipline (b) good food (c) proper education (d) good knowledge
- Asa reigned for ____ years (a) 50yrs (b) 21yrs (c) 31yrs (d) 41yrs
- `Jehoshaphat succeeded his father as king at the age (a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 25 (d) 20
- Samuel took over Judge in Israel after the death of ____ (a) Saul (b) David (c) Eli (d) Esua
- The Lord said they should gather ___ portion (a) a day’s (b) everyday (c) a day (d) everyday’s
- The story of ____ was another case of somebody who had absolute trust in God. (a) Daniel (b) Solomon (c) David (d) Job
- ____ is defined as the assurance of things hoped for (a) hope (b) joy (c) faith (d) prayer
- “With God , all things are possible” such as the case of ___ ___ and ___ (a) Daniel, Solomon and David (b) Shedrack, Meshack and Abednego (c) Matthew, John and Peter (d) James, Luke and Simon
- ____swallowed Jonah (a) shark (b) snail (c) wail (d) big fish
- Jonah went to Joppa and boarded a ship to ____ (a) Israel (b) Egypt (c) Tarshishi (d) Asia
- The supremacy of God on earth is ____ (a) questionable (b) unquestionable (c) knowledge (d) acceptable
SECTION B: Answer any four questions
1. Give any Biblical account that demonstrates absolute faith in God.
2a. Discuss the experience of Jonah in the belly of the fish
(b) In order to escape from the presence of God, Jonah boarded a ship at?
3 The people of Israel had no fear of God in their heart. Discuss
4. Give the theme of Amos’ message to the Israelites
5. Describe the practice which Amos condemned in the life of Israel
6. Discuss Hosea’s marital experience and how it demonstrates God’s love for Israel
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT: GOVERNMENT CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Sovereignty implies all the following except (a) the highest authority in a state (b) a state of political independence (c) unlimited powers of a state to make and enforce laws (d) the supremacy of political parties
- The origin of federalism in Nigeria could be traced to the division of the country into (a) three provinces (b) four provinces (c) two provinces (d) five province
- Before governor Boundillon left office, he recommended for the introduction of (a) province (b) regionalism (c) regions (d) house of assembly
- ____constitution improved on Richard’s constitution by creating house of assembly . (a) Clifford’s (b) Lyttiton’s (c) Macpherson’s (d) Lugard’s
- The origin of federalism in Nigeria started the year ___(a) 1941 (b) 1939 (c) 1930 (d) 1940
- One of the factors responsible for Nigerian federalism is ____ (a) British colonial policy (b) federalism before independence (c) separation of power (d) supremacy of the constitution
- All are features of federalism except (a) written and rigid (b) geographical factors (c) power derived from the constitution (d) separation of power
- The Nigeria democracy party was formed in ____ (a0 1933 (b) 1923 (c) 1925 (d) 1935
- ____ was popularly referred to as “father of Nigerian nationalism (a) Lord Lugard (b) Sir John Macpherson ( c) Sir Clifford (d) Sir Herbert Macauley
- ____found Lagos Daily News s (a) NNDP (b) NCNC (c) NYm (d) NPN
- The NCNC was formed in _____ (a) 1955 (b) 1933 (c) 1966 (d) 1944
- Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe was the first general secretary of (a) NPN (b) NYM (c) (c) NCNC (d) NNDP
- Nigeria youth movement featured characters like (a) Emest Ikoli (b) Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe (c) Hebert Macaulay (d) Obafemi Awolowo
- ____ started as a cultural organization (a) NNDP (b) NPN (c) NYM (d) NPC
- Pressure group can be defined as (a) aggressive group of people (b) organized group of (c) oppressive group (d) violent group
- All are types of pressure groups except ____ (a) economic pressure groups (b) professional pressure group (c) educational pressure groups (d) environmental pressure group
- ____ is not a danger posted by the activities of pressure groups (a) social disorder (b) misrepresentation (c) they are self centred (d) large seize
- ____can created in 1914, after the amalgamation by Lord Lugar (a) office (b) council (c) state (d) nation
- Membership was ___ (a) official and students (b) lecturers and unions (c) teachers and students (d) traders and customers
- The full meaning of NAP (a) Nigeria Advanced party (c) National people’s party of Nigeria (d) Nigeria people’s party
SECTION B: Answer any four questions
1. what were the outcome of the lagos conference of 1954?
b. identify any five factors responsible for Nigerian federalism
2. State at least five aims and objectives of PDP
3. Describe six achievement of the National party of Nigeria between 1979 and 1983
4. highlights at least five weaknesses of Lyttleton constitution .
5. List four Political Parties each in the 1st,2nd,and 4th Republic in Nigeria as well as the two parties of the 3rd republic.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT: GOVERNMENT CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Educational pressure group has to do with ____ (a) lecturers (b) teachers (c) students (d) traders
- ____ are the organized professional associations like the Nigeria medical association, Nigerian Bar association etc. (a) economic pressure group (b) professional pressure group (c) promotional interest groups (d) educational groups
- All are functions of pressure groups except (a) offer useful suggestion (b) promote economic stability (c) promote interest group (d) act as a link.
- ____ is a factor that can hinder the success of pressure group (a) lobbying (b) strike (c) poor leadership (d) the mass media
- All are functions of public opinion except (a) need of the people (b) cabinet reshuffle (c) difficult to measure (d) support of the people
- ——- is a demerit of public opinion (a) not often reliable (b) through election (c) letters to government (d) channels of communication
- Through election, through pressure group and political parties are ___ (a) how public opinion is measured (b) features of public opinion (c) formation of public opinion (d) functions of public opinion
- Constitutionalism act as a ____ (a) check ad limit (b) check and balance (c) equality before the law (d) rule of law
- A citizen is a ___ (a) legal member (b) illegal member (c) private member (d) government
- _____ is a way of acquiring citizenship (a) marriage (b) reading (c) education (d) working
- Dual citizenship means a person that hold citizenship of ____ (a) one country (b) three countries (c) two countries (d) four countries
- Somebody can become a citizen of a country where he lives through _____ (a) honorary (b) birth (c) registration (d) nationalism
- The type of government that is headed by a queen is known as (a) monarchy (b) federal (c) presidential (d) republican
- A system whereby there is only one legislative chamber parliament is referred to as ____ (a) unicameral (b) Bi-cameral (c) confederal (d) monarchical
- The doctrine of the rule of law is credit to ____ (a) John Lockey (b) A.V Dicey (c) Thomas Hoobes (d) J.J. Rousseau
- There are ____ types of bills (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2
- Dumping ground is a demerit of ____ (a) Bicameralism (b) uni-cameralism (c) check and balances (d) rule of law
- A bill passes ____ stages before becoming a law (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 5
- Democracy is defined as government of the people by the people and for the people by (a) Michael Jackson (b) Abraham Lincoln (c) India Jones (d) A.V Dicey
- Government can be define as ______ (a) the motor (b) the machinery 9c) the method (d) the system.
SECTION B: Answer any four questions
1a. Define fundamental human right (b) Name and explain 4 reasons why it was included in the constitution.
2a. Define citizenship (b) Highlight ways of acquiring citizenship
3a. Define constitution (b) list the purpose of constitution
4a. define public opinion (b) Identify the features of public opinion
5a. define pressure groups (b) Name and explain the types of pressure groups
6a. Give the meaning of the Executive as an arm of government (b). state the functions of the executive arm of Government.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020 SESSION
SUBJECT; COMMERCE CLASS: SS 1
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- One major advantage of a sole trader is that he _______ (a) shares the profit (b) share the loss (c) take profit alone (d) none of the above
- A sole trader has _______ (a) limited liability (b) unlimited liability (c) small liability (d) limited and unlimited liability
- The best or primary source of finance to a sole trader is ________ (a) personal savings (b) bank loan (c) loan from friends (d) loan from parents
- A partnership business can be dissolved by _____ (a) police order (b) court order (c) one partner (d) two partner
- One of the contents of a partnership deeds is ______ (a) names of relatives (b) address of parents (c) pictures of friends (d) two partners
- A partner who takes active parts in the partnership is called ________(a) active partner (b) nice partner (c) dormant partner (d) nominal partners
- The total number of people that can form a partnership is between ______ (a) 7 to 20 (b) 2 to 50 (c) 50 to 20 (d) 2 to 20
- We have basically ________ types of partnership (a) two (b) five (c) six (d) seven
- Which of the following is a fixed asset (a) stock (b) loan (c) land (d) debtors
- which of the following is a current asset_______ (a) stock (b) land (c) debtors (d) creditors
- which of the following is a current liability ______ (a) land (b) motor van (c) creditors (d) capital
- Before the use of money _______ was the method of transaction (a) cheque (b) barter syetem (c) postal order (d) none of the above
- One strong quality of a good money is ________ (a) generally acceptable (b) largely unacceptable (c) partially accepted (d) all of the above
- One of the following is a function of money _______ (a) medium of exchange (b) trade by barter (c) exchange factor (d) legal factor
- Unit of account is a function of ______ (a) bank (b) distributive trade (c) money (d) Insurrance
- the origin of bank in Nigeria is from ______ (a) America (b) France (c) England (d) South Africa
- The function of a central bank is to _______(a) accept deposit (b) issue currency (c) give loan to the public (d) advice businessmen
- The function of a commercial bank is ______ (a) accept deposit (b) advice the central bank (c) issue currency (d) none of the above
- How does the central bank controls the commercial bank ______ (a) open market operation (b) changing the management (c) taking over the bank (d) none of the above
- lender of last resort is a system used by the _______ (a) microfinance bank (b) mortgage bank (c) commercial bank (d) central bank
THEORY: attempt any four question
1. What is sole trader? (b) Give five features and five sources of his capital
2. (a) What do you understand by multiple shops (b) what are the advantages of multiple shops
3. Mention five function of money and five features of money
4. Define commercial bank (b) list five function of central bank and explain two
5. Define the term cheque (b) Give five reasons why a cheque may dishonoured
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020 SESSION
SUBJECT; ECONOMICS CLASS: SS 1
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The term distributive trade is also called ______ (a) trade affairs (b) chain of distribution (c) users chain (d) moving chain
- The final destination of manufactured goods is the _____ (a) consumers (b) producers (c) retailers (d) manufacturer
- The actual movement of the chain is from ______ (a) manufacturer to consumer (b) consumer to retailer (c) manufacturer to middlemen (d) middlemen to manufacture
- One of the following is a process of distribution________ (a) transportation (b) bank (c) trade (d) channel
- __________ is considered as a major problem of trade distribution (a) bad or poor storage system (b) adequate infrastructure (c)good road net work (d) all of the above
- Population is concerned about __________ (a) counting of the less privileged (b) total number of people in an area (c) total number of disable in a particular area (d) people living in a particular area
- __________ is largely responsible for increase in population (a)death rate (b) early marriage (c) late marriage 9d) natural disaster
- Natural disaster is a goods sign for _______ (a) increase in population (b) decrease in population (c) low population (d) none of the above
- One of the cause of death rate is due to _________ (a) early marriage (b) birth control (c) poor medical service (d) birth rate
- A typical implication of large population is ______ (a) high cost of living (b) regular promotion (c) good medical (d) all of the above
- the government need population census on the basis of_______ (a) distribution of resources (b) victimization of officers (c) reconciliation of people (d) none of the above
- Before the use of money transactions were done by ______ (a) trade by butter (b) trade by system (c) trade by barter (d) trade by money
- One major quality of money is _________ (a) generally acceptable *(b) partially acceptable (c) limitedly acceptable (d) none of the above
- Homogeneity is a feature of ________ (a) central bank (b) commercial bank (c) microfinance bank (d) money
- For anything to be called money it must be ______ (a) soft (b) divisible (c) hard (d) silent
- The following is a type of money ____ (a) legal tender (b) stamp (c) postal order (d) cheque
- The function of partnership is between ______ (a) 5 to 20 (b) 2 to 20 (c) 7 to 20 (d) 2 to 10
- The advantage of a sole trader is ________ (a) slow decision making (b) normal decision making (c) quick decision making (d) bad decision making
- An active partner in a partnership has ______ (a) limited liability (b) unlimited liability (c) active liability (d) normal liability
- A sole trader is at a disadvantage because ______ (a) he shares the profit with other (b) he bears the loss alone (c) takes the profit alone (d) none of the above
THEORY: Attempt any four question
1. Explain the meaning of distributive trade (b) Give five functions of wholesaler to a retailer
2. Discuss five major problems of product distribution in Nigeria
3. Explain four factors responsible for population growth in Nigeria
4. Define the term money (b) Give 2 functions of money (c) Give two features of money
5. State five problems of agriculture (b) Mention two solutions to the problems
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020 SESSION
SUBJECT; ECONOMICS CLASS: SS 2
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Market are generally classified according to (a) commodity traded on (b) location used (c) company’s name (d) sentiments
- A markets where long term and medium term loan can be sourced is called (a) factor market (b) capital market (c) money market (d) know material market
- Privatization is situation where individuals are encouraged to take over ____ (a) the state government (b) source for fund (c) government organizations (d) the local business
- Monopoly can be best controlled by one of the following (a) encourage merger (b) increase tariff (c) use of patent law (d) privatization
- ________ is a factor necessary for perfect market (a) free entry and exit (b) few buyer only (c) many sellers only (d) only one seller and buyer
- One major problem with monopoly is (a) efficiency (b) exploitation (c) standardization (d) all of the above
- All the firms that are engaged in one particular line is called (a) one business (b) small organization (c) industry (d) merger
- An example of a construction industry is (a) construction bank (b) car assembly plant (c) insurance plant (d) all of the above
- The industry that is responsible for extraction of material from the soil is ______ (a) processing industry (b) manufacturing industry (c) mining industry (d) none of the above
- The major difference between location and localization of industry is based on ______ (a) strategy reason (b) profit realization (c) concentration of firms (d) political factor
- the benefit of localization of industry in Nigeria is ______ (a) encourages rapid development (b) slow economic (c) check rural migration (d) improve emigration
- Which of the following is regarded as the bankers bank_____ (a) micro-finance (b) mortgage bank (c) central bank (d) commercial bank
- One of the responsibilities of the central bank is _____ (a) accept deposit (b) issue currency (c) establish banks (d) sell shares
- Which of this factor is responsible for poor industry growth in Nigeria ______ (a) surplus capital (b) racial discrimination (d) inadequate infrastructure
- Duopoly is a market where there are only (a) one producer (b) two producer (c) three producer (d) four producer
- A market situation where we have few producer or sellers of the same commodity is called _____ (a) monopoly (b) tanopoly (c) oligopoly (d) monopolist
- Whish of the these two factors will cause monopoly (a) act of parliament and natural cause (b) level of technology and income (c) merger and quality staff (d) patent law and infrastructure
- One way by which the central bank can control the commercial banks is through _____ (a) force pressure (b) presidential pleading (c) opening market operation (d) market operation
- Distributive trade in economics is ______ (a) how to distribute income (b) movement of goods to their destination (c) explaining trade (d) analysis distribution
- Portability is a feature of the following _______ (a) supply (b) demand (c) money (d) all of the above
THEORY: Attempt any four questions
1. What is the difference between a firm and an industry (b) Give five problems and five solutions to industrialization in Nigeria
2. List and explain five major cause of monopoly
3. Write short note on any four of the following:
(a) stock exchange
(b) Money market
(c) Capital market
(d) Factor market
(e) Consumer goods market
4. Explain five ways by which the control bank controls the commercial bank
5. Give five factors responsible for localization of industries
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT; FINANCIAL ACCOUNT CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The main purpose of preparing trading account is to ascertain (a) cash sales to customers only (b) gross profit (c) net profit (d) both credit and cash sales
- The difference between sales and cost of sales is the___? (a) commission (b) net profit (c) gross profit (d) cost of goods available
- A provision which amount cannot be ascertain is known as (a) bad debt (b) doubtful debt (c) depreciation (d) reserves
- ______ is set aside to strengthen the financial position of a firm (a) general reserves (b) specific reserves (c) cash at bank (d) none of the above
- The drawings account of a sole proprietor is transferred to the (a) capital account (b) debit side of trading account (c) credit side of profit and loss account (d) current liabilities in the balance sheet
- Which of the following shows the stock at start of an accounting period? (a) current assets in the balance sheet (b ) current liabilities in the balance sheet (c) trading account (d) profit and loss account
- Discount allowed would appear on the (a) fixed asset in the balance sheet (b) debit side of trading account (c) long term liabilities in the balance sheet (d) debit side of profit and loss account
- The concept of double entry book-keeping states that (a) if you receive goods on credit, the seller becomes your creditor (b)for every debit entry there is a corresponding credit entry party (c) purchases and sales are stated separately (d) for every seller there is a buyer
- A system that allow the same amount to be written off as yearly depreciation is known as __ (a) an adjustment account (b) reducing balance (c) straight line (d) annuity
- Loan is a good example of_______ (a) assets (b) current liability (c) long term liability (d) capital
- Carriage inward expenses of a business is treated in (a) trading account (b) balance sheet (c) appropriation account (d) profit and loss account
- A deduction from the sales price of goods that is allowed if payment is made within a specified period of time is (a) trade discount (b) cash discount (c) quantity discount (d) rebate
- ________ is not a component of a trading account (a) purchases (b) sales (c) gross profit (d) net profit
- Which of the following error affects the trial balance? (a) commission (b) omission (c) principle (d) single entry
- The addition of purchases, carriage inward and opening stock is______ (a) net profit (b) cost of goods sold (c) cost of goods available for sales (d) gross profit
- Which of the following does not belong to the group? (a) proprietor of a business (b) an entrepreneur (c) an investor (d) a debtor
- Which of the following is not a liability? (a) accrued wages (b) rent arrear (c) prepayment (d) insurance due
- The balance of the provision for depreciation account is shown in the (a) trial balance as a debit (b) trial balance as a credit (c) balance sheet as a fixed asset (d) balance sheet as a current liabilities
- A trader set aside from his
private fund N1500 for business purpose the
N1500 would be referred to as (a) capital (b) loan (c) reserve (d) drawing
- Reserves are basically divided into ___________ (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) none of the above
PART B: Theory-Answer 4 questions only
- (a)
what is depreciation (b) list and
explain two methods of depreciation
- draw up a comprehensive format of a trading and profit and loss account as well as a balance sheet
- write short notes on the following:
a. Revenue reserves
b. Capital reserves
c. Provision for bad debts
d. Discount allowed and Discount received
4. The cost
of a machine is N10, 000.
The residual value is N4,
000. it is expected to last for 5 years using the straight line method prepare the depreciation schedule.
5. (a) what is reserve (b) differentiate between reserves and provisions.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020 SESSION
SUBJECT; COMMERCE CLASS: SS 2 TIME
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- From the accountant’s view capital is seen as (a) tangible goods (b) intangible goods (b) money invested (d) money withdrawn
- Another name for authorized capital is known as (a) issued capital (b) fixed capital (c) registered capital (d) employed capital
- The excess of selling price over cost price is regarded as ______ (a) working capital (b) capital employed (c) profit (d) purchase price
- the profit that is realized after all the expenses have been deductive is _________(a) abnormal profit (b) normal profits (c) weak profit (d) net profit
Using the following information creditors N20,000, premises N20,000
Machinery N20,000 cash N20,000
Debtors N30,000 stock N50,000
Cost of sales N100,000 sales N200,000
Plant N30,000 rent N10,000
- From the above information the
fixed assets is ______(a)
N7,000 (b)N70,500 (c)N80,000 (d)N70,000 - The working capital of the business is _____ (a) N80,000 (b) N70,000 (c) N75,000 (d) N65,000\
- The net profit of the business is__________ (a) N8,000 (b) 90,000 (c) N19,000 (d) N19,500
- What is the gross profit of the business ________ (a) N100,000 (b) N10,100 (c) N1,100 (d) N1,000
- A stoke broker is entitled to a commission called ______ (a) agent fee (b) brokerage (c) allowance (d)
- The stock exchange is a market is where ___________ (a) government exchange ideas (b) state share resources (c) shares are traded (d|) shares are destroyed
- Which of the following is classified as a fixed asset _____(a) stock (b) motor van (c) capital (d) machinery
- Which of the following is recorded as a current asset ? (a) stock (b) motor van (c) capital (d) machinery
- The amount of money set aside for the day –to – day running of an organization is called ______ (a) paid-up capital (b) working capital (c) fixed capital (d) playing capital
- Which of the following is found in the deed of partnership _____ (a) names of partners (b) debt of the company (c) relatives of the partners (d) all of the above
- A general partner is one who has _______ (a) limited liability (b) limited capital (c) unlimited liability (d) limited scope
- Dissolution of partnership could be by any of the following _____ (a) court order (b) proxy (c) message (d) decision
- Portability as a function of money suggest that money should be ______ (a) heavy (b) moved (c) stored (d) saved
- The origin of money in Nigeria took its root from (a) America (b) Japan (c) Canada (d) Britain
- Savings account is usually operated by _______ (a) multinationals (b) corporate bodies (c) low income earners (d) co-operatives
- An account that a customer withdraw from at the expiration of period is called _________(a) standard account (b) fixed deposit (c) current account (d) any time account
THEORY: Attempt question 2 and any other three
- Define the term profit and explain two types of profit.
- The following are the trading figures if Damilola and Emmanuel trading company limited for the period endd 31st Nov. 1954
creditors 20,000
promises 20,000
land 10,000
building 25,000
machinery 20,000
Cash 20,000
Debtor 30,000
Stock 50,000
Cost of goods sold 150,000
Sales 300,000
Plants 30,000
Rent 10,000
from the above, calculate
(i) Fixed asset (ii) working capital (iii) Net profit
- Define stock exchange (b) give five importance of stock exchange
- write short note on any four of the following
- authorized capital
- issued capital
- call-up capital
- paid-up capital
- What is communication
(b) Give examples of five traditional means of communication and explain three only
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT; FINANCIAL ACCOUNT CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The balance of the provision for depreciation account is shown in the (a) trial balance as a debit (b) trial balance as a credit (c) balance sheet as a current assets
- Outstanding rent of N300 is paid by the proprietor, the entry in the balance sheet is that (a) both asset and the liability are increased (b) both asset and the liability is decreased. (c) liability is increase while the asset is decreased (d) liability is decreased while the asset is increased
- When a buyer returns damaged goods to the seller, the buyer received a (a) profoma invoice (b) credit note (c) debit note (d) consignment note
- Trade discount is (a) allowance for prompt payment (b) allowance for damaged goods (c) allowance of price list (d) discount on debtors.
- Which of the following is not true of capital expenditure? (i) assets required for the purpose of earning income (ii) extension of office building (iii) it is incurred and its full benefits consumed one period of account (a) I only (b) ii only (c) I and ii only (d) ii and iii only
Use the following information to answer questions 6-8
N
Sales 58,000
Opening stock 7,000
Purchases 32,000
Carriage inward 1,000
Carriage outward 1,500
Returns inward 500
Closing stock 2,500
Expenses 5,000
- What is gross profit? (a) N31,000 (b) N30,000 (c) N 20,500(d) N20,000
- What is the net profit? (a) N15,000 (b) N14,500 (c) 13,500 (d) 13,000
- What is the net sale? (a) N35,000 (b) 40,000 (c) 57,500 (d) 58,500
- In the absence of a partnership deed, capital contributed by partners attracts an interest of? (a) 0% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 15%
- Which of the following does not belong to the group? (a)debtors (b)electricity (c) salaries (d) sundry expenses
- Which of the following is a fictitious asset? (a) building (b) debtors (c) prepaid expenses (d) preliminary expenses
- Which of the following are not current assets? (a) cash (b) debtors (c) machinery(d) prepayment
- Rent payable on account is an example of a (a) (a) nominal account (b) real account (c) personal account (d) private account
- A provision is (a) an amount set out for profit for other uses (b) an amount of loss from trading activities (c) an expenses of business to be paid for in cash (d) A loss in value of all business assets
- The term bad debts are used to describe (a) a debt that cannot be received (b) a debt is long overdue (c) an over charge on debtor’s account (d) a debt owned by former employee.
Use the following information to answer questions 16-19
N
Land and building 20,000
Stock 5,000
Cash in hand 1,000
Profit and loss b/f 14,000
Rent owing 400
Creditors 11,000
Furniture and filleting 7,500
Motor vehicles 12,500
Debtors 13,750
Bank overdraft 8,750
- The value of current liabilities is (a) N32,750 (b) 20,150 (c) 19,750 (d) 11,000
- The value of current assets is (a) N28,500 (b) 20,150 (c) 19,750 (d) 17,000
- The opening capital is (a) N32,000 (b) 26,000 (c) 25,600 (d) 14,000
- The value of fixed assets is (a) N57,300 (b) N47,500 (c) 40,000 (d) 37,500
- Partner’s interest on capital is shown in the (a) profit and loss account (b) partners fixed capital account (c) profit and loss appropriation account (d) trading profit and loss account
PART B: Theory-Answer 4 questions only
1. The following balance were extracted from the books of Jennifer for the year ended 31st Dec. 2010
Sales: N N
Department A 52,000
Department B 68,000
Department C 30,000 150,000
Purchases:
Department A 30,000
Department B 45,000
Department C 25,000 100,000
Insurance 800
Commission paid 3,500
Rent and rates 2,460
Delivery expenses 700
Administration expenses 4,560
Discount received 770
Salaries 18,800
Advertising 1,210
Depreciation 2,100
Opening stock:
Department A 7,000
Department B 12,000
Department C 3,000 22,000
Closing stock:
Department A 10,500
Department B 15,000
Department C 5,000 30,500
Additional information:
Expenses are to be apportioned on the following basis:
a. Salaries, depreciation, rent and rates, administration expenses-equally
b. Discount received-purchases
c. Advertising, commission and delivery expenses –sales
d. Insurance rate-ratio 5:3:2 to A, B and C respectively
You are required to prepare departmental, trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31st Dec. 2010.
2. The following balance were extracted from the books of Belly enterprises on 31st Dec. 2012
N
Freehold property 50,000
Capital 81,445
Trade debtors 28,750
Trade creditors 26,150
Furniture and fittings (cost N22,500) 16,250
Rent 950
Electricity 675
Provision for bad debt 1/1/12) 288
Office equipment (cost 20,000) 15,500
Stock (1/1/12) 7,750
General expenses 2,350
Rates 625
Cash in hand 137
Bank overdraft 4,475
Bank charges 375
Purchases 60,750
Sales 74,000
Carriage inwards 395
Salaries 1,700
Discount allowed 485
Discount received 332
Additional information: (a) closing stock N6635 (b) salaries in arrears N875 (c) prepaid expenses: rent N150, rates N138 (d) provision for bad debts to be reduced to N225 (e) all fixed assets are to be depreciated at 5% on cost. You are required to prepare a: (i) trial balance as at 31st Dec. 2012, and (ii) Trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31st Dec.2012.
3. Ogun and Dapo are in partnership sharing profit and loss in the ratio 3:2. the following is the trial balance as at 31st December 2013
Trial balance Dr Cr
N N
Capital: Ogun 100,000
Dapo 50,000
Drawings: Ogun 6,000
Dapo 5,000
Purchases 12,000
Sales 20,000
Sales returns 4,000
Purchases returns 2,000
Stock 1st Jan 1995 10,000
Carriage inwards 1,200
Salaries and wages 15,000
Bad debts 1,000
Office expenses 2,400
Loan – Okafor 14,000
Provision for doubtful debts 300
Discount allowed 1,150
Discount received 1,100
Building at cost 30,000
Machinery at cost 109,100
Cash at bank 8,000
Motor van at cost 50,000
Electricity 50
Provision for depreciation motor van 10,000
Debtor s 20,000
Creditors 10,000
Bills payable 9,000
Bills Receivable 17,500
Current account balance : Ogun 1,500
Dapo 1,000
400,90 400,900
Additional information: (a) stock at close N15,000 (b) electricity prepaid N20 (c) interest on drawings 5% (d) partnership salary Ogun N2,000 (e) salaries and wages accrued N1,000 (f) interest on capital at 10% (g) depreciation motor van 10% (h) provision for bad debt is to be reduced to N200 (i) Ogun withdrawn goods for his own use N7,000
You are require to : (a) prepare to trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December, 2013 (b) Partners capital account (c) balance sheet as at 31st December, 2013.
4. Identify any five prime books of accounts and highlight the uses of each of them, with illustrations.
5. Explain the following accounting terms:
I. Accumulated fund
ii. Depreciation
iii. Nominal capital
iv. Bad debts
v. Gross and Net profit.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGAUGE CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it.
Miss Williamson announced in class one day that she wanted one of us to live with her to help her with her domestic work after school. there was a rush to volunteer which took her completely by surprise. When she recovered and had quietened our exited shouting, there was a moment during which non of us dared breathe, as she scanned the eager faces. what made her choose me I have never found out, but I had noticed before that she was partial to me.
‘All right Karimu’, she said. ‘ you can come; but first run along and get your father’s consent.
My parents were only too glad to have one mouth fewer to feed and my brothers and sisters to see the back of one who inevitably had begun to assume an air of superiority in talking to them. miss Williamson’s bungalow was a stone throw from the school. that very evening saw me installed on a mat in a corner of her back veranda . I was unable to sleep, excited of the thought of the good fortune that had come my way. to be within earshot of miss Williamson’s English all day, to have access to her books, to nurse the possibility overwhelming even in thought, of going with her frequently to Rofunkti-all these Visions kept my eyes wide open and my brain racing until very late that night. with my ‘lapa’ pulled over my head and happy beyond all description in my heart. I smiled myself to sleep.
I learnt a very great deal in Miss Williamson’s bungalow. Apart from improving my English, I learnt about the world outside, and began to sense that there were barriers much higher and much less easily gauged than those of mere language and colour, between my own people and from whom she sprang. The smiling teacher in the daytime often became the brooding restless, ill tempered spinster in the evening. her bungalow was shared by another lady, a doctor, also a scot, who travelled to and fro between the two villages on a bicycle. I noticed that when not at work or talking about it, these two women showed no signs of being happy. As I grew up with them, I found myself wondering what had made them leave their own country and came to live this strange life among a people whose ways were totally different from theirs
a. Why was Miss Williamson completely surprised?
b. Why was Karimu;s family happy to see him go to stay at the bungalow?
c. State the overwhelming thought that kept Karimu awake.
d. What did Karimu find difficult to understand about the twoladies ?
e. Mention the Identiical trait in these two ladies behavour.
f. What made her choose me…”
(i) What grammatical name is given to this expression in the passage?
(ii) What is its function?
g. ‘I smiled myself to sleep’ What is the meaning of this expression?
h. For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replaced it as it is used in the passage (i) scanned (ii) inevitably (iii) nurse (iv) vision (v) gauged (vi) brooding
SUMMARY
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it
No one can deny the fact that anyone who wants to be successful in learning the English language needs
a good English dictionary. such a dictionary should be a source of information that is not generally available in
grammar books. it should not only contain a list of words and their meaning, but also a lot of information that
can help a learner to speak and write good English.
In order to use words correctly, the reader needs to know how to link to it with other words in a sentence.
he should also know the structures that often precede or follow it, and whether it is formal. this will help
him to choose what word is appropriate for a particular context. The dictionary is therefore, an invaluable aid to
Reading as well as writing skills
If the meaning of a particular word in a passage impedes the overall comprehension of the main ideas
presented in it, then a dictionary should be used. Most teachers must have observed a wide spread tendency
among their student to attack a new passage by reading it word by word, stopping to reach for a dictionary
whenever they come across a word they don’t know. This is a wrong approach; the dictionary should be used
only as a last resort. The main objective reading a passage is not to define specific words but to understand the ideas and concepts of the passage..The frequent use of a dictionary tends to focus the reader;’s attention on words when he should be concentrating on understanding the main ideas of the passage. Efficient reading implies obtaining the greatest amount of information from the passage in the shortest time possible. the frequent use of a dictionary takes too much time time that can better employed in getting an overall understanding of the passage.
Instead of turning to the last resort, the reader should continue reading. very often, the meaning of an unfamiliar word can be guessed from the context in which is used. the passage may give a definition, cite examples or describe the circumstances surrounding the use of such a word well enough for him to know what it means. after reading for him to know what it means. after reading the whole passage, the reader may realize that he has understood the importance ideas presented without knowing the meaning of every word. If, after reading entire passage, the reader is still unable to guess the meaning of a word the context, then he should study the structure of the word. The word may be a compound word which, when broken into its component parts, can be easily understood.
If after exhauster these approaches, the reader still does not understand the meaning of a word, and if this word is vital to the comprehension of the whole passage, then and only then, should he refer to a dictionary.
Question
- In one sentence state the purpose of a good dictionary
- In two sentences, one for each, state two disadvantages of constantly referring to a dictionary when reading a passage
- In three sentences, one for each, summarize the three steps that a reader should take before referring to a dictionary
SECTION B
ESSAY WRITING
Instruction: Choose only one question in this section.
- You are the chief speaker in a debate on the Topic: violent video games should be banned. write an argument for or against the topic
- write a story to illustrate the saying: “A good name is better than riches “
- You principal has just been promoted to head another school. as the senior prefect, write a speech you would deliver during the send-off party organized for him
SECTION C
Lexis and Structure
Instruction: The passage has gaps numbered 1-10. Immediately after each gap, four options are provided. choose the most appropriate option for each gap.
On the 21st of June 1994, the Director General received in his office a visitor, the first of of its kind in his office a visitor, the first of its kind in his life. Even though he really could not make any menaing out of his name, the visitor’s second statement that he was a court 1 (a) bailiff (b) messenger (c) litigant (d) clerk
readily gave the director –general a clear picture of the main’s purpose. he immediately gave to the director-general two sets of papers. The first was a 2 (a) writ of summons (b) subpoena (c) call notice (c) letter
which was to notify the Director-General that he and the agency he represented were being sued for 3 (a) battery (b) slander (c) libel (d) contempt
and that he should seek the service pf a lawyer who would appear for him on the 6th of July when the case was for mention.
The second paper was on a motion of 4 (a) summons (b) order (c) decision (d) interlocutory injunction
which, if granted by the court would restrain the director-General or the 5 (a) defender (b) litigant (c) prosecution (d) defendant
from publishing further anything on the staff of the ministry or the 6 (a) witness (b) exhibits (c) plaintiffs (d) perjurer
The motion was also slated for6th July. On the day of the mention of the motion, the court became alive as early as 8:30am. as the 7 (a) presiding judge (b) court clerk (c) justice (d) prosecutor
was known for his punctuality. He would sit at exactly 9:00am the plaintiffs and their counsel were the first to come into the cort room, and then came the defense counsel. At the dot of the hour, three bangs were heard, immediately after which the court clerk announced the presence of the judge. In np time, the court clerk read out the case and the counsel announced their 8 (a) presence (b) appearances (c) arrival (d) interest.
The counsels to the plaintiffs moved his motion relying on a six paragraph ___9____ (a) oath (b) affidavit (c) presentation (d) arguments.
which contained the facts of the case. In response, the defence counsel argued on the premise of an eight-paragraph ___10____ (a) counter affidavit (b) declaration (c) submission (d) summons .
The motion was granted according to the merit of the argument of the first lawyer.
Instruction: After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretation of all part of the sentence is given. choose the interpretation trhat you consider appropriate for each sentence.
- Mr. John has always manage to keep his head above water (a) keep his head above water when swimming (b) likes swimming (c) knows the techniques of swimming (d) stay oput of financial difficulty
- The men eventually gained their freedom and decided kater to get their own back on their oppressor (a) strike (b) have their revenge on (c) get something from (d) beat up
- He went off the rail as soon as he had of his failure in the last examination (a) became annoyed (b) wept bitterly (c) became disorganized (d) lost consciousness
- She is eating her heat out for a sailor who is away at sea (a) write to (b) longing for (c) fuming about (d) quarreling with
- How do you hope to do it? you can’t make bricks without straw (a) use a straw for making bricks (b) afford not to have all the necessary materials (c) find bricks and straw (d) erect a bricks without straw
from the words lettered A to D choose the word or group of words that best complete each of the following sentences
- My _____ to you student is to be good (a) advice (b) advise (c) adverse (d) advance
- People are always afraid to visit Mr. Ade because he is ______ (a0 an army (b) a solder (c) an army man (d) a military
- I want that spoon washed, I can still see _____ on it (a) oiliness (b) greases (c) some oil (d) greasiness
- Which reading method is suitable to get just the main idea (a) scrambling (b) scanning (c) study (d) skimming
- Which of these options explains implied meaning (a) reading for the writer’s purpose (b) reading I between the line (c) understanding through the passage what the writer did not write (d) understanding what the writer explains in the passage
- He knew ____ (a) that they wanted (b) what they wanted (c) if the wanted (d) at where they wanted
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGAUGE CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
COMPREHENSION PASSAGE
INSTRUCTION: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it
When Bademosi heard that he had some visitors from Ireti, his home town, he concluded immediately that they must be the usual seekers of financial assistance, or jobs. He decided that this time, he would give them the rough edge of his tongue. They had come because earlier callers had not reported what he had stressed: That he was not in kapita town for anyone’s sake.
He took his time to put his office and workshop in order, determined not to leave in a hurry just because of some stubborn fortune-seekers. He made sure that all his seventy-two workers had signed out before he signaled to his driver. There, in the huge limousine, he thought of the new-multi-million dollar contract for his construction company and how he would get a helicopter from the profit that would be the ultimate solution to the persistent problem of the traffic congestion which he faced in capitation.
The five-kilometre distance to his mansion was covered in about two hours. On arrival, his youngest wife informed him that his visitors were chiefs from Ireti. He felt revulsion as he imagined that they must have come with a king-size request. as he entered the house, he steeled his mind. However, the three chiefs disarmed him with their cheerful smiles. Each met him in the doorway with a bear hug. as soon as the chit-chat ended, they announced that Ireti ruling council had decided to confer on him the highest traditional title of the land, and that the date had been set for the great event. He was flabbergasted, so they had come with an offer. He immediately accepted.
Thereafter, things moved very fast. He contacted all the great names in the country, among them his state governor, the top politicians in the land and his business associates from far and near. However, he did not even pay a preparatory visit to Ireti. He took everything for granted.
The great day came. Hundreds of limousines from far and near streamed into Ireti. As he was not the only awardee, the conferment ceremony began with the others. Each took out fifteen minutes; so before Badamosi’s turn, all his invited guests had arrived. Just as he was called, some heavily-built young sisters appeared. Shouting into the microphone , their leader announced, “Badamosi doesn’t deserve this conferment and cannot have the title . A man who has deserted his community for more than thirty years, who did not think it proper to return home to care for his ailing parents before they died, and who has consistently turned deaf ears to the calls of our youths, cannot have the title. Goodday, every body!”
With that, the youths continue to appear in their hundreds, angry and fierce, wielding all forms of weapons, warning everybody to disappear immediately, otherwise heads could roll, including theirs if the police wanted it so. within minutes the whole arena was deserted
- How had Badamosi treated visitors from his home town?
- What evidence is there in the passage that Badamosi that Badamosi is walthy?
- Why has Badamosi planned to buy a helicopter
- What should Badamosi have done before the day of the conferment of the title ?
- Give two reasons why the youths objected?
- “As soon as the chit-cheat ended…”
- What is the grammatical name given to this expression as it is used in the passage?
- What is its function
- “… give them the rough edge of his tongue”
- What figure of speech is used in this expression
- What does it mean?
- For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replace it as is used in the passage
- Stressed;
- ultimate;
- flabbergasted
- desertrd,
- disappear
SUMMARY
SECTION B
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it
Poverty! Can anyone who has not really been poor know what poverty is? I really doubt it. How can
Anyone who enjoys three square meals a day explain what poverty means? Indeed, can someone who has two
full meals a day claim to know poverty? Perhaps, one begins to grasp the real meaning of poverty when one
struggles really hard to have one miserable meal in twenty four hours. Poverty and hunger are cousins, the
farmer always dragging along the latter whenever he chooses to go.
If you are wearing a suit or traditional attire, and you look naturally rotund in your apparel, you cannot
Understand what poverty entails. Nor can you have a true feel of poverty if you have some good shirts and a
pair of trousers , never mind that all these are casual wear. Indeed, if you can change from one dress into
another, and these are all you can boast of, you really are not poor. A person begin to have true feel of, what
Poverty means when, apart from the tattered clothes on his body, he doesn’t have any other, not even a calico
sheet to keep away the cold at night.
Let us face it, how can anyone who has never slept outside, in the open, appreciate the full, harsh
import of homelessness? Yet that is what real, naked poverty is. He who can lay claim to a house, however
humble cannot claim to be poor. Indeed, if he can afford to rent a flat, or room in a town or city without the
Landlord having cause to eject him, he cannot honesty claim to be poor? The really poor man has no roof over
his head, and this is why you find him under a bridge in a tent or simply in the vast open air
But that is hardly all. The poor man faces the world as a hopeless under dog. In every bargain, every
discussion, every event involving him and others, the poor man is constantly reminded of his failure in life. Nobody listens attentively when he makes a point, nobody accepts that his opinion merits consideration so, in most cases, he learns to accept that he has neither wisdom nor opinion.
The pauper’s lot naturally rubs off on his child who subject not only to hunger of the body but also of the mind. The pauper lacks the resources to send his child to school. And even in communities where education is free, the pauper’s child still faces an up hill task because the hunger of the body implies the proper nourishment of the mind. Denied access to modern communications media, the poor child has very little opportunity to understand the concept on which the teacher’s seeds cannot easily germinate. Thus embattled at home and then at school, the pauper’s child soon has very little option but to drop out of the school.
That is still not all. Weakened by hunger, embattled by cold and exposure to the elements, feeding on poor water and poor food, the pauper is an easy target for disease. This is precisely why the poorest countries have the shortest life expectancies while the longest life expectancies are recorded among the richest countries. Poverty is really a disease that shortens life.
QUESTION
- In six sentences, one for each, summarize the problems of the poor man.
SECTION C
Choose only one question in this section
- Your country’s Public Transport system is not functioning’s properly. Write a letter to the minister to the minister of transport highlighting the causes and suggesting, at least, two measures to remedy the situation.
- Tell a story that ends with the words: it was a bitter experience, but I learnt my lesson
- You are the main speaker in a school debate, the topic of which is : Examination malpractice schools is worse than stealing. write for or against the topic
[
SECTION D
Lexis and structure
INSTRUCTION: In the following passages, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below each passage four choices are offered in columns lettered A to D for each question, choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the passage.
The 1 to have children is deep rooted in the hearts of both men and women, and women, and on entering into 2 union they regard the 3 of children as the first and most 4 duty
A B C D
1. Lust attraction desire passion
2. Fraternal domestic matrimonial polygamous
3. Minding procration conception tendering
4. homely voluntary necessary Important
When he had finished sweeping the sitting 5 , she took up the slightly most 6 the table, chairs, stools and window 8 . After that she adjusted the 9 on the windows and doors and 10 the few books and other items on the table and stools
A B C D
5. Room apartment corridor parlour
6. sweeper wiper mop duster
7. mould mist dust sands
8. frames bars glasses panes
9. clothes curtains dressed covering
10. Read wrote rearranged completed
OBJECTIVES
In each of the questions 11 to 15, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) or phrase underlined.
11. The players were delirious but the coach was impassive (a) enthusiastic (b) emotionless (c) angry (c) observant
12. Biola was always indiscreet in her actions (a) circumspect (b) careless (c) creative (d) arrogant
13. His behavior last night was out of character (a) usual (b) untypical (c) surprising (d) wonderful
14. The manager described him as an unindustrious worker (a) a courageous (b) a diligent (c) a careful (d) an intelligent
15. The judge who passed the sentenced was disinterested (a) partial (b) interested (c) wicked (d) fair
choose the word or phrase which best fills the gap in each sentences.
16. Very few students have satisfactory ______these days because the students’ population has increased tremendously (a) accommondation (b) accommodation (c) accommodation (d) acommodation
17. Whilst the thief was _______ the passengers, he kept apologizing for the inconveniencies he was causing them (a) robing (b) rubbing (c) rubing (d) robbing
18. The officer was compelled to ______ the suspect’s car (a) seize (b) cease (c) sieze (d) sease
19. He did not attend the final burial ______ (a) rite (b) rights (c) rites (d) right
20. The choice to go is ______ (a) your’s (b) your (c) yours (d) yours’
from the words or group of words labeled A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word or
group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word or group of words
21. Climbing great heights terrifies me (a) threatens (b) annoys (c) shook (d) frightens
22. Flight WT509 from Lagos terminates in Maiduguri (a) closes (b) concludes (c) lands (d) ends
23. I would regard what he has done as a treacherous act (a) noble (b) reliable (c) commendable (d) dangerous
24. To become an artisan one has to undergo a period of apprenticeship. (a) directorship (b) testing (c) tutorship (d) training
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 2 hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Which of the following elements exhibits the same chemical properties as the am 35 ? an element with
1
(a) atomic number 17 (b) atomic number 18 (c) mass number 35 (d) mass number 52
2. The energy change which accompanies the addition of an electron to a gaseous atom si (a) atomization (b) electron affinity (c) electro negativity (d) ionization
3. If X is a group III element, its oxide would be represented as (a) X3O2 (b) X3O (c) XO3 (d) X2O3
4. Which of the following statement about chlorine and iodine at room temperature is correct s(a) Cl2 is gas and I2 is solid (b) Cl2 and I2 are gases (c) Cl2 is solid and I2 is liquid (d) Cl2 is liquid and I2 is gas
- Calcium and magnesium belong to the same group in the periodic table because both (a0 are metals (b) form cations (b) have the same number of valence electrons (d) form colourless salt
- Which of the following chlorides is insoluble in water (a0 AgCl (b) kCl (c) NH4Cl (d) ZnCl2
- Which of the following oxides is basic (a) NO2 (b) Al2O3 (c) SO2 (d) CaO
- The rate of chemical reaction of solids are not affected by s(a) catalyst (b) particle size (c) pressure (d) temperature
- A solution of Na2CO3 contains 10.6g in 250cm3 of solution. Calculate the concentration of the solution [Na2CO3 = 106] (a) 0.4moldm3 (b) 1.0modm3 (c) 10.6moldm3 (d) 25.0moldm3
- When ethanol is heated with excess Conc H2SO4 the organic product formed is (a) ethane (b) ethane (c) ethanoic acid (d) ethanal
- A mixture of kerosene and diesel oil can be separated by (a) crystallization (b) precipitation (c) sublimation (d) distillation
- Ammonia is suitable for performing fountains experiment because the gas is (a) colourless (b) alkaline gas (c) very soluble in water (d) lighter than air
- What percentage by weight of calcium in Ca(Ocl)2 [Ca= 40, Cl = 35.5, H = 1 O = 16] (a) 28.0% (b) 31.6% (c) 43.8% (d) 44.5%
- A positive brown ring test indicates the presence of (a) Na–3 (b) SO32- (c) CO32- (d) CU2+
- The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in dil HNO3 is (a) pink (b) orange ( c) colourless (d) purple
- The solubility curve shows the variation of solute concentration with (a) volume (b) pressure (c) temperature (d) vapour
- What is the main type of reaction alkanes undergo? (a) addition (b) condensation (c) polymerization (d) substitution
- The pressure of 100cm3 of oxygen at 350c is 750mmhg. What will be the volume of the gas if the pressure is reduced to 100mmHg without changing the temperature
- The following are uses of sulphur except (a) coating of steel (b) vulcanization of rubber (c) manufacture of dye (d) manufacture of H2SO4.
- The compound that is used as an anesthetic is (a) CH2Cl2 (b) CHCl (c) CCl4 (d) CHCl3
SECTION B- Answer Any three Questions
1a. An organic compound with vapour density 30 contains 40% carbon, 6.7% Hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen. Determine the (i) empirical formula (ii) molecular formula of the compound [ H = 1, C = 12, O = 16]
b. Give three characteristics of homologues series (c) draw the structure of the following (i) 2,3-dimethyl pentane (ii) 2 methyl, 3 ethyl hexane (iii) 1,1,2 trichlorobutane
2a. Draw a well labeled diagram in the laboratory. preparation of hydrogen chloride (ii) mention 2 chemical properties of hydrogen chloride (b) state 3 uses of chlorine (i) Give the LUPAC name of the following salts (a) NaOCl (bi) Mg(HCO3)2 (c) KHSO4
iii. State two gases that rekindle a glowing splint
3a. Describe briefly how H2SO4 is manufactures by contact process [equation necessary ]
b. State two uses of H2SO4 (i) State one air pollutants that causes (i) blood poisoning (ii) acid rain (iii) blackens the walls of the building
4a. List 2 reactants for the laboratory preparation of ammonia
i. Sate 3 physical properties of ammonia (b) Give reason why (i) glass apparatus should be used in preparation of Conc HNO3
ii. Coloureless HNO3 turns yellowish after some time
- H2SO4 can not be used to dry ammonia
c. Write a well balanced equation to show the action of heat on the following
i. Pb(NO3)2 (ii) ZnCO3
5 i. Sate one disadvantage of the following
- Hard water
- Soft water
ii. Give one chemical test for water
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT; AGRIC SCIENCE CLASS: SS 2 TIME : 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The sources of farm power that can be affected by pests is ______ (a) water power (b) biogas (c) wind (d) animal power
- The economic importance of poultry keeping include the following except (a) production of ornamental feathers (b) provision of leather (c) provision of employment (d) generation of income
- The following are practiced in pig management except (a) feeding (b) candling (c) castration (d) deworming
- The casual organism of anthrax is (a) bacteria (b) virus (c) fungus (d) nematode
- An example of poultry disease caused by protozoa is____ (a) aspergillosis (b) coccidiosis (c) red water (d) foot and mouth
- Farmer are unable to obtain credit from bank due to their inability to provide _____ (a) collateral (b) interest (c) subsidies (d) implements
- When crop is best cultivated by mechanical means? (a)cassava (b) cocoa (c) yam (d) maize
- Which organism helps to mix soil properly with organic matter at the surface/ (a) algae
(b) bacteria (c) earth worm (d) fungi
- Which animal have only one functional ovary? (a) cow (b) ewe (c) sow (d) hen
- Which crop can be propagated both sexually and asexually? (a) cassava (b) orange (c) groundnut (d) maize
- Crop production is highly influenced in Africa by (a) temperature (b) light (c) rainfall
(d) atmospheric pressure
- The reward for entrepreneur as a factor of production is_____ (a0 rent (b) interest (c) profit
(d) input
- Macro-nutrient considered non-essential as an input___ cowpea production is (a) phosphorus
(b) potassium (c) calcium (d) nitrogen
- A farm tool used in trimming flowers and hedges is ___ (a) pick axe (b) shears (c) hand fork
(d) cutlass
- Farming practices having detrimental effects on the soil include the following except (a) bush burning (b) continuous cropping (c) over grazing (d) crop rotation
- In Mechanized farms farmers will not normally use ____(a) fertilizers (b) plough (c) hoe
(d) improved seeds
- The botanical name of guinea grass is ___ (a) imperata cylindrical (b) cynodon dactylon
(c) andropogon gayanus (d) panicium maximum
- Tikka disease of groundnut is caused by____ (a) protozoa (b) virus (c) fungus (d) bacteria
- The Gestation period of cow is (a) 240 (b) 235 (c) 283 (d) 270
- The main functions of the crop in the digestive tract of birds is to ___ (a) grind food particles
(b) store food (c) absorb water nutrient (d) secrete gastric juice
Theory Part 2: answer four questions in this section
1. Mention 5 common weeds and state their botanical name (b) state 5 effects of weeds on the crop .
2. Whar do you understand by crop improvement
3. Define land as a factor of production. (b) Mention three features of each of the following below
i. Land (ii) Labour (iii) Capital (iv) Entrepreneur
4. State and explain five sources of farm financing
5. State five roles of agricultural extension (b) list five problems facing agricultural extension in Nigeria
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT; AGRIC SCIENCE CLASS: SS 1 TIME : 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Factors affecting the distribution of farm animals are the following except (a) availability of pasture
(b) chemical factors (c) market (d) religion
- Operation Feed the Nation is an example of government agricultural ___ (a) policy (b) programme
(c) regulation (d) democracy
- The following are the different ways through which disease s can spread except (a) contact (b) feeds
(c) ploughing (d) water
- A land hold for a fixed period of time on an agreed condition is known as (a) land reforms (b) free hold
(c) contract (d) lease hold
- Commercial agriculture is preferred to subsistence agriculture because it (a) provide more food for the populace (b) requires less capital (c) does not require the involvement of skilled person (d) centres on cash crops production.
- Land quality in agriculture is usually adversely affected by ____ (a) trampling (b) erosion (c) weeding (d) irrigation
- Rocks formed from accumulation and compaction of sand, plants and animal remain are known as (a0 igneous rock (b) metamorphic rocks (c) sedimentary rocks (d) intrusive rocks
- The soil fractions that are riches in nutrients are ____ (a) sand and silt (b) loam and sand (c) clay and silt (d) clay and loam
- In order to eliminate food shortage farmers should __ (a) cultivate more varieties of crops (b) practice land tenure by inheritance (c) shift from crops to animals production (d) construct more farm buildings.
- Which of the following farm practice that does not have significant harmful effect on the soil? (a) crop rotation (b) land clearing (c) over grazing (d) bush burning
- Sources of irrigation water include the following except (a) lake (b) rivers (c) stream (d) ocean
- Which of the following require daily checking in a tractor? (a) spark plug (b) engine oil (c) air cleaner (d) battery
- Which of the following crop does not require nursery? (a) cocoa (b) mango (c) maize (d) tomato
- Forage crop refers to crop___ (a) growing wild (b) grown specifically for human consumption (c) grown to feed animals in fresh or preserved form (d) used for controlling erosion
- Aphids are___ (a) biting and chewing insects (b0 boring insect (c) piercing and sucking insects (d) eating and destroying insects.
- Fertilization in farm animals takes place in ___ (a0 oviduct (b) cervix (c0 vulva (d) infundibulum
- The process of giving birth to young ones in pig is called____ (a) kidding (b) kiddling (c) farrowing (d) calving
- Which of the following is not a part of the reproductive system of a hen/ (a) funnel (b) litmus (c) ovary (d) ureter
- The hormones that is responsible for maintaining pregnancy in farm animals is __ (a) testosterone (b) progesterone (c) relaxin (d) oxytocin
- Which of the following is not a breed of fowl?____ (a) white leghorn (b) brown leghorn (c) landrace (d) Sussex
Theory Part 2: answer four questions in this section
1. List three breeds of cattle and two breeds of rabbit. (b) State five general characteristics of cattle
2. Mention five by-products of farm animals. (b) Explain five economic importance of hides and skins
3. Explain the following: ( i) culling (ii) charming (iii) tattooing (iv) debeaking (v) castration
b. State five reasons for curling in animals.
4. Explain the following: (i) heat period (ii) mating (iii) parturition (iv) gestation period (v) lactation
5. Write the botanical name of groundnut. (b) Explain the following in groundnut: (i) varieties (ii) climatic requirement (iii) method of propagation (iv) seed rate (v) maturity (vi) weeding (vii) harvesting (viii) storage (c) Mention two pests of groundnut.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 2 hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- . Which of the following element is diatomic (a) iron (b) neon (c) oxygen (d) sodium
- A solid substance with high melting and boiling point is likely to be a/an ____ compound (a) covalent (b) dative covalent (c) electrovalent (d) non-metal
- Which of the following molecules has a triple bond in its structure? (a) CH4 (b) NH4 (c) N2 (d) O2
- Which of the following apparatus can be used to measure a specific volume of a liquid? (a) pipette (b) measuring cylinder (c) beaker (d) flask
- The following substance are normal salt except (a) Al(NO3)3 (b) FeSO4 (c) Nacl (d) Mg(OH)NO3
- Which of the following substance can not be classified as a heavy chemical? (a) AgNO3 (b) CaO (c) CaOCl2 (d) H2CO4
- How many moles are there in 20g of CaCo3 (CaCO3) = 100 (a) 50moles (b) 0.4moles (c) 2.0moles (d) 0.2moles
- Producer gas is a mixture of (a) H2 and O2 (b) Co and H2 (c) CO and O2 (d) CO and N2
- When an element can exist in two or more forms in the same physical state, the element is said to exhibit (a) allotropy (b) isomerism (c) sublimation (d) hygroscopy
- Octane number is highest in petrol containing a high proportion of (a) 2,2,4 trimethy/pentane (b) heptane (c) octane (d) 2-methypenetane
- Destructive desstillation of coal means (a) burning coal to produce water and (O2 (b) heating coal in plentiful supply of air (c) separating coal into various allotropes of carbon. (d) heating coal in absence of air
- Given that R is rate and d is density, the expression R ∞ 1 represents (a) Boyles’s law (b) Grahams law (c) Dalton’s law (d) Charles’s law d
- A solution PH 7 is (a) acidic (b) alkaline (c) dilute (d) neutral
- The following acids are monobasic except (a) trioxonitrate (v) acid (b) hydrochloric acid (c) tetraoxosulphate vi acid (d) ethanoic acid
- The acids present in proyteins is (a) amino acid (b) lactic acid (c) palmitic acid (d) ascorbic acid
- A salt which losses mass when exposed to air is (a0 efflorescent (b) effervescent (c) delinquencies (d) evaporation
- Diamond is hard substance because its carbon atoms are held by (a) vander weals force (b) hydrogen bonding (c) strong covalent bonds (d) strong electrostatic forces
- The liquid fraction in destruction distillation of coal is (a) coke (b) coal tar (c) ammoniacal liquor (d) coal gas
- The maximum number of electrons in the L-shell of an atom is (a) 18 9b) 32 (c) 2 (d) 8
- which of the following is an example of a mixture (a) sand (b) blood (c) common salt (d) water
SECTION B- Answer Any Four Questions
1a. Define chemistry (b) Mention 5 lab apparatus and state their uses (c) state 3 differences between
physical change and chemical change
2a. State 3 Dalton’s atomic theory (b) write the formula for the following compounds (i) sodium trioxonitrate(v) (ii) Ammonium chloride (iii) potassium tetraoxosulphate(vi)
c. Write the electronic configuration of the following (i) oxygen (ii) neon (iii) silicon (iv) chlorine
3a. Mention two crystalline and one amorphous allotropes of carbon. (i) state one use of each
b. State two physical and one chemical properties of carbon(iv) oxide (ii) give two reasons why CO2 is used as a fire extinguisher.
4. Define the following: (i) Hygros copy (ii) efflorescence (iii) sgive one example of salt that exhibit this properties
b. State two methods of preparing soluble and insoluble salt (i) Sate one example of a soluble and insoluble salt (c)Give two uses of base/alkalis
5a. Define (i) cracking (ii) knocking (ii) state 4 tractions of petroleum (b) distinguish between heavy chemicals and fine chemicals giving examples of each
c. Name two local materials that is used for soap production (i) state one importance of chemical industry
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGAUGE CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it.
Miss Williamson announced in class one day that she wanted one of us to live with her to help her with her domestic work after school. there was a rush to volunteer which took her completely by surprise. When she recovered and had quietened our exited shouting, there was a moment during which non of us dared breathe, as she scanned the eager faces. what made her choose me I have never found out, but I had noticed before that she was partial to me.
‘All right Karimu’, she said. ‘ you can come; but first run along and get your father’s consent.
My parents were only too glad to have one mouth fewer to feed and my brothers and sisters to see the back of one who inevitably had begun to assume an air of superiority in talking to them. miss Williamson’s bungalow was a stone throw from the school. that very evening saw me installed on a mat in a corner of her back veranda . I was unable to sleep, excited of the thought of the good fortune that had come my way. to be within earshot of miss Williamson’s English all day, to have access to her books, to nurse the possibility overwhelming even in thought, of going with her frequently to Rofunkti-all these Visions kept my eyes wide open and my brain racing until very late that night. with my ‘lapa’ pulled over my head and happy beyond all description in my heart. I smiled myself to sleep.
I learnt a very great deal in Miss Williamson’s bungalow. Apart from improving my English, I learnt about the world outside, and began to sense that there were barriers much higher and much less easily gauged than those of mere language and colour, between my own people and from whom she sprang. The smiling teacher in the daytime often became the brooding restless, ill tempered spinster in the evening. her bungalow was shared by another lady, a doctor, also a scot, who travelled to and fro between the two villages on a bicycle. I noticed that when not at work or talking about it, these two women showed no signs of being happy. As I grew up with them, I found myself wondering what had made them leave their own country and came to live this strange life among a people whose ways were totally different from theirs
a. Why was Miss Williamson completely surprised?
b. Why was Karimu;s family happy to see him go to stay at the bungalow?
c. State the overwhelming thought that kept Karimu awake.
d. What did Karimu find difficult to understand about the twoladies ?
e. Mention the Identiical trait in these two ladies behavour.
f. What made her choose me…”
(i) What grammatical name is given to this expression in the passage?
(ii) What is its function?
g. ‘I smiled myself to sleep’ What is the meaning of this expression?
h. For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replaced it as it is used in the passage (i) scanned (ii) inevitably (iii) nurse (iv) vision (v) gauged (vi) brooding
SUMMARY
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it
No one can deny the fact that anyone who wants to be successful in learning the English language needs
a good English dictionary. such a dictionary should be a source of information that is not generally available in
grammar books. it should not only contain a list of words and their meaning, but also a lot of information that
can help a learner to speak and write good English.
In order to use words correctly, the reader needs to know how to link to it with other words in a sentence.
he should also know the structures that often precede or follow it, and whether it is formal. this will help
him to choose what word is appropriate for a particular context. The dictionary is therefore, an invaluable aid to
Reading as well as writing skills
If the meaning of a particular word in a passage impedes the overall comprehension of the main ideas
presented in it, then a dictionary should be used. Most teachers must have observed a wide spread tendency
among their student to attack a new passage by reading it word by word, stopping to reach for a dictionary
whenever they come across a word they don’t know. This is a wrong approach; the dictionary should be used
only as a last resort. The main objective reading a passage is not to define specific words but to understand the ideas and concepts of the passage..The frequent use of a dictionary tends to focus the reader;’s attention on words when he should be concentrating on understanding the main ideas of the passage. Efficient reading implies obtaining the greatest amount of information from the passage in the shortest time possible. the frequent use of a dictionary takes too much time time that can better employed in getting an overall understanding of the passage.
Instead of turning to the last resort, the reader should continue reading. very often, the meaning of an unfamiliar word can be guessed from the context in which is used. the passage may give a definition, cite examples or describe the circumstances surrounding the use of such a word well enough for him to know what it means. after reading for him to know what it means. after reading the whole passage, the reader may realize that he has understood the importance ideas presented without knowing the meaning of every word. If, after reading entire passage, the reader is still unable to guess the meaning of a word the context, then he should study the structure of the word. The word may be a compound word which, when broken into its component parts, can be easily understood.
If after exhauster these approaches, the reader still does not understand the meaning of a word, and if this word is vital to the comprehension of the whole passage, then and only then, should he refer to a dictionary.
Question
- In one sentence state the purpose of a good dictionary
- In two sentences, one for each, state two disadvantages of constantly referring to a dictionary when reading a passage
- In three sentences, one for each, summarize the three steps that a reader should take before referring to a dictionary
SECTION B
ESSAY WRITING
Instruction: Choose only one question in this section.
- You are the chief speaker in a debate on the Topic: violent video games should be banned. write an argument for or against the topic
- write a story to illustrate the saying: “A good name is better than riches “
- You principal has just been promoted to head another school. as the senior prefect, write a speech you would deliver during the send-off party organized for him
SECTION C
Lexis and Structure
Instruction: The passage has gaps numbered 1-10. Immediately after each gap, four options are provided. choose the most appropriate option for each gap.
On the 21st of June 1994, the Director General received in his office a visitor, the first of of its kind in his office a visitor, the first of its kind in his life. Even though he really could not make any menaing out of his name, the visitor’s second statement that he was a court 1 (a) bailiff (b) messenger (c) litigant (d) clerk
readily gave the director –general a clear picture of the main’s purpose. he immediately gave to the director-general two sets of papers. The first was a 2 (a) writ of summons (b) subpoena (c) call notice (c) letter
which was to notify the Director-General that he and the agency he represented were being sued for 3 (a) battery (b) slander (c) libel (d) contempt
and that he should seek the service pf a lawyer who would appear for him on the 6th of July when the case was for mention.
The second paper was on a motion of 4 (a) summons (b) order (c) decision (d) interlocutory injunction
which, if granted by the court would restrain the director-General or the 5 (a) defender (b) litigant (c) prosecution (d) defendant
from publishing further anything on the staff of the ministry or the 6 (a) witness (b) exhibits (c) plaintiffs (d) perjurer
The motion was also slated for6th July. On the day of the mention of the motion, the court became alive as early as 8:30am. as the 7 (a) presiding judge (b) court clerk (c) justice (d) prosecutor
was known for his punctuality. He would sit at exactly 9:00am the plaintiffs and their counsel were the first to come into the cort room, and then came the defense counsel. At the dot of the hour, three bangs were heard, immediately after which the court clerk announced the presence of the judge. In np time, the court clerk read out the case and the counsel announced their 8 (a) presence (b) appearances (c) arrival (d) interest.
The counsels to the plaintiffs moved his motion relying on a six paragraph ___9____ (a) oath (b) affidavit (c) presentation (d) arguments.
which contained the facts of the case. In response, the defence counsel argued on the premise of an eight-paragraph ___10____ (a) counter affidavit (b) declaration (c) submission (d) summons .
The motion was granted according to the merit of the argument of the first lawyer.
Instruction: After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretation of all part of the sentence is given. choose the interpretation trhat you consider appropriate for each sentence.
- Mr. John has always manage to keep his head above water (a) keep his head above water when swimming (b) likes swimming (c) knows the techniques of swimming (d) stay oput of financial difficulty
- The men eventually gained their freedom and decided kater to get their own back on their oppressor (a) strike (b) have their revenge on (c) get something from (d) beat up
- He went off the rail as soon as he had of his failure in the last examination (a) became annoyed (b) wept bitterly (c) became disorganized (d) lost consciousness
- She is eating her heat out for a sailor who is away at sea (a) write to (b) longing for (c) fuming about (d) quarreling with
- How do you hope to do it? you can’t make bricks without straw (a) use a straw for making bricks (b) afford not to have all the necessary materials (c) find bricks and straw (d) erect a bricks without straw
from the words lettered A to D choose the word or group of words that best complete each of the following sentences
- My _____ to you student is to be good (a) advice (b) advise (c) adverse (d) advance
- People are always afraid to visit Mr. Ade because he is ______ (a0 an army (b) a solder (c) an army man (d) a military
- I want that spoon washed, I can still see _____ on it (a) oiliness (b) greases (c) some oil (d) greasiness
- Which reading method is suitable to get just the main idea (a) scrambling (b) scanning (c) study (d) skimming
- Which of these options explains implied meaning (a) reading for the writer’s purpose (b) reading I between the line (c) understanding through the passage what the writer did not write (d) understanding what the writer explains in the passage
- He knew ____ (a) that they wanted (b) what they wanted (c) if the wanted (d) at where they wanted
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGAUGE CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
COMPREHENSION PASSAGE
INSTRUCTION: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it
When Bademosi heard that he had some visitors from Ireti, his home town, he concluded immediately that they must be the usual seekers of financial assistance, or jobs. He decided that this time, he would give them the rough edge of his tongue. They had come because earlier callers had not reported what he had stressed: That he was not in kapita town for anyone’s sake.
He took his time to put his office and workshop in order, determined not to leave in a hurry just because of some stubborn fortune-seekers. He made sure that all his seventy-two workers had signed out before he signaled to his driver. There, in the huge limousine, he thought of the new-multi-million dollar contract for his construction company and how he would get a helicopter from the profit that would be the ultimate solution to the persistent problem of the traffic congestion which he faced in capitation.
The five-kilometre distance to his mansion was covered in about two hours. On arrival, his youngest wife informed him that his visitors were chiefs from Ireti. He felt revulsion as he imagined that they must have come with a king-size request. as he entered the house, he steeled his mind. However, the three chiefs disarmed him with their cheerful smiles. Each met him in the doorway with a bear hug. as soon as the chit-chat ended, they announced that Ireti ruling council had decided to confer on him the highest traditional title of the land, and that the date had been set for the great event. He was flabbergasted, so they had come with an offer. He immediately accepted.
Thereafter, things moved very fast. He contacted all the great names in the country, among them his state governor, the top politicians in the land and his business associates from far and near. However, he did not even pay a preparatory visit to Ireti. He took everything for granted.
The great day came. Hundreds of limousines from far and near streamed into Ireti. As he was not the only awardee, the conferment ceremony began with the others. Each took out fifteen minutes; so before Badamosi’s turn, all his invited guests had arrived. Just as he was called, some heavily-built young sisters appeared. Shouting into the microphone , their leader announced, “Badamosi doesn’t deserve this conferment and cannot have the title . A man who has deserted his community for more than thirty years, who did not think it proper to return home to care for his ailing parents before they died, and who has consistently turned deaf ears to the calls of our youths, cannot have the title. Goodday, every body!”
With that, the youths continue to appear in their hundreds, angry and fierce, wielding all forms of weapons, warning everybody to disappear immediately, otherwise heads could roll, including theirs if the police wanted it so. within minutes the whole arena was deserted
- How had Badamosi treated visitors from his home town?
- What evidence is there in the passage that Badamosi that Badamosi is walthy?
- Why has Badamosi planned to buy a helicopter
- What should Badamosi have done before the day of the conferment of the title ?
- Give two reasons why the youths objected?
- “As soon as the chit-cheat ended…”
- What is the grammatical name given to this expression as it is used in the passage?
- What is its function
- “… give them the rough edge of his tongue”
- What figure of speech is used in this expression
- What does it mean?
- For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can replace it as is used in the passage
- Stressed;
- ultimate;
- flabbergasted
- desertrd,
- disappear
SUMMARY
SECTION B
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it
Poverty! Can anyone who has not really been poor know what poverty is? I really doubt it. How can
Anyone who enjoys three square meals a day explain what poverty means? Indeed, can someone who has two
full meals a day claim to know poverty? Perhaps, one begins to grasp the real meaning of poverty when one
struggles really hard to have one miserable meal in twenty four hours. Poverty and hunger are cousins, the
farmer always dragging along the latter whenever he chooses to go.
If you are wearing a suit or traditional attire, and you look naturally rotund in your apparel, you cannot
Understand what poverty entails. Nor can you have a true feel of poverty if you have some good shirts and a
pair of trousers , never mind that all these are casual wear. Indeed, if you can change from one dress into
another, and these are all you can boast of, you really are not poor. A person begin to have true feel of, what
Poverty means when, apart from the tattered clothes on his body, he doesn’t have any other, not even a calico
sheet to keep away the cold at night.
Let us face it, how can anyone who has never slept outside, in the open, appreciate the full, harsh
import of homelessness? Yet that is what real, naked poverty is. He who can lay claim to a house, however
humble cannot claim to be poor. Indeed, if he can afford to rent a flat, or room in a town or city without the
Landlord having cause to eject him, he cannot honesty claim to be poor? The really poor man has no roof over
his head, and this is why you find him under a bridge in a tent or simply in the vast open air
But that is hardly all. The poor man faces the world as a hopeless under dog. In every bargain, every
discussion, every event involving him and others, the poor man is constantly reminded of his failure in life. Nobody listens attentively when he makes a point, nobody accepts that his opinion merits consideration so, in most cases, he learns to accept that he has neither wisdom nor opinion.
The pauper’s lot naturally rubs off on his child who subject not only to hunger of the body but also of the mind. The pauper lacks the resources to send his child to school. And even in communities where education is free, the pauper’s child still faces an up hill task because the hunger of the body implies the proper nourishment of the mind. Denied access to modern communications media, the poor child has very little opportunity to understand the concept on which the teacher’s seeds cannot easily germinate. Thus embattled at home and then at school, the pauper’s child soon has very little option but to drop out of the school.
That is still not all. Weakened by hunger, embattled by cold and exposure to the elements, feeding on poor water and poor food, the pauper is an easy target for disease. This is precisely why the poorest countries have the shortest life expectancies while the longest life expectancies are recorded among the richest countries. Poverty is really a disease that shortens life.
QUESTION
- In six sentences, one for each, summarize the problems of the poor man.
SECTION C
Choose only one question in this section
- Your country’s Public Transport system is not functioning’s properly. Write a letter to the minister to the minister of transport highlighting the causes and suggesting, at least, two measures to remedy the situation.
- Tell a story that ends with the words: it was a bitter experience, but I learnt my lesson
- You are the main speaker in a school debate, the topic of which is : Examination malpractice schools is worse than stealing. write for or against the topic
[
SECTION D
Lexis and structure
INSTRUCTION: In the following passages, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number in the list below each passage four choices are offered in columns lettered A to D for each question, choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the passage.
The 1 to have children is deep rooted in the hearts of both men and women, and women, and on entering into 2 union they regard the 3 of children as the first and most 4 duty
A B C D
1. Lust attraction desire passion
2. Fraternal domestic matrimonial polygamous
3. Minding procration conception tendering
4. homely voluntary necessary Important
When he had finished sweeping the sitting 5 , she took up the slightly most 6 the table, chairs, stools and window 8 . After that she adjusted the 9 on the windows and doors and 10 the few books and other items on the table and stools
A B C D
5. Room apartment corridor parlour
6. sweeper wiper mop duster
7. mould mist dust sands
8. frames bars glasses panes
9. clothes curtains dressed covering
10. Read wrote rearranged completed
OBJECTIVES
In each of the questions 11 to 15, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) or phrase underlined.
11. The players were delirious but the coach was impassive (a) enthusiastic (b) emotionless (c) angry (c) observant
12. Biola was always indiscreet in her actions (a) circumspect (b) careless (c) creative (d) arrogant
13. His behavior last night was out of character (a) usual (b) untypical (c) surprising (d) wonderful
14. The manager described him as an unindustrious worker (a) a courageous (b) a diligent (c) a careful (d) an intelligent
15. The judge who passed the sentenced was disinterested (a) partial (b) interested (c) wicked (d) fair
choose the word or phrase which best fills the gap in each sentences.
16. Very few students have satisfactory ______these days because the students’ population has increased tremendously (a) accommondation (b) accommodation (c) accommodation (d) acommodation
17. Whilst the thief was _______ the passengers, he kept apologizing for the inconveniencies he was causing them (a) robing (b) rubbing (c) rubing (d) robbing
18. The officer was compelled to ______ the suspect’s car (a) seize (b) cease (c) sieze (d) sease
19. He did not attend the final burial ______ (a) rite (b) rights (c) rites (d) right
20. The choice to go is ______ (a) your’s (b) your (c) yours (d) yours’
from the words or group of words labeled A to D below each of the following sentences, choose the word or
group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word or group of words
21. Climbing great heights terrifies me (a) threatens (b) annoys (c) shook (d) frightens
22. Flight WT509 from Lagos terminates in Maiduguri (a) closes (b) concludes (c) lands (d) ends
23. I would regard what he has done as a treacherous act (a) noble (b) reliable (c) commendable (d) dangerous
24. To become an artisan one has to undergo a period of apprenticeship. (a) directorship (b) testing (c) tutorship (d) training
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 2 hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Which of the following elements exhibits the same chemical properties as the am 35 ? an element with
1
(a) atomic number 17 (b) atomic number 18 (c) mass number 35 (d) mass number 52
2. The energy change which accompanies the addition of an electron to a gaseous atom si (a) atomization (b) electron affinity (c) electro negativity (d) ionization
3. If X is a group III element, its oxide would be represented as (a) X3O2 (b) X3O (c) XO3 (d) X2O3
4. Which of the following statement about chlorine and iodine at room temperature is correct s(a) Cl2 is gas and I2 is solid (b) Cl2 and I2 are gases (c) Cl2 is solid and I2 is liquid (d) Cl2 is liquid and I2 is gas
- Calcium and magnesium belong to the same group in the periodic table because both (a0 are metals (b) form cations (b) have the same number of valence electrons (d) form colourless salt
- Which of the following chlorides is insoluble in water (a0 AgCl (b) kCl (c) NH4Cl (d) ZnCl2
- Which of the following oxides is basic (a) NO2 (b) Al2O3 (c) SO2 (d) CaO
- The rate of chemical reaction of solids are not affected by s(a) catalyst (b) particle size (c) pressure (d) temperature
- A solution of Na2CO3 contains 10.6g in 250cm3 of solution. Calculate the concentration of the solution [Na2CO3 = 106] (a) 0.4moldm3 (b) 1.0modm3 (c) 10.6moldm3 (d) 25.0moldm3
- When ethanol is heated with excess Conc H2SO4 the organic product formed is (a) ethane (b) ethane (c) ethanoic acid (d) ethanal
- A mixture of kerosene and diesel oil can be separated by (a) crystallization (b) precipitation (c) sublimation (d) distillation
- Ammonia is suitable for performing fountains experiment because the gas is (a) colourless (b) alkaline gas (c) very soluble in water (d) lighter than air
- What percentage by weight of calcium in Ca(Ocl)2 [Ca= 40, Cl = 35.5, H = 1 O = 16] (a) 28.0% (b) 31.6% (c) 43.8% (d) 44.5%
- A positive brown ring test indicates the presence of (a) Na–3 (b) SO32- (c) CO32- (d) CU2+
- The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in dil HNO3 is (a) pink (b) orange ( c) colourless (d) purple
- The solubility curve shows the variation of solute concentration with (a) volume (b) pressure (c) temperature (d) vapour
- What is the main type of reaction alkanes undergo? (a) addition (b) condensation (c) polymerization (d) substitution
- The pressure of 100cm3 of oxygen at 350c is 750mmhg. What will be the volume of the gas if the pressure is reduced to 100mmHg without changing the temperature
- The following are uses of sulphur except (a) coating of steel (b) vulcanization of rubber (c) manufacture of dye (d) manufacture of H2SO4.
- The compound that is used as an anesthetic is (a) CH2Cl2 (b) CHCl (c) CCl4 (d) CHCl3
SECTION B- Answer Any three Questions
1a. An organic compound with vapour density 30 contains 40% carbon, 6.7% Hydrogen and 53.3% oxygen. Determine the (i) empirical formula (ii) molecular formula of the compound [ H = 1, C = 12, O = 16]
b. Give three characteristics of homologues series (c) draw the structure of the following (i) 2,3-dimethyl pentane (ii) 2 methyl, 3 ethyl hexane (iii) 1,1,2 trichlorobutane
2a. Draw a well labeled diagram in the laboratory. preparation of hydrogen chloride (ii) mention 2 chemical properties of hydrogen chloride (b) state 3 uses of chlorine (i) Give the LUPAC name of the following salts (a) NaOCl (bi) Mg(HCO3)2 (c) KHSO4
iii. State two gases that rekindle a glowing splint
3a. Describe briefly how H2SO4 is manufactures by contact process [equation necessary ]
b. State two uses of H2SO4 (i) State one air pollutants that causes (i) blood poisoning (ii) acid rain (iii) blackens the walls of the building
4a. List 2 reactants for the laboratory preparation of ammonia
i. Sate 3 physical properties of ammonia (b) Give reason why (i) glass apparatus should be used in preparation of Conc HNO3
ii. Coloureless HNO3 turns yellowish after some time
- H2SO4 can not be used to dry ammonia
c. Write a well balanced equation to show the action of heat on the following
i. Pb(NO3)2 (ii) ZnCO3
5 i. Sate one disadvantage of the following
- Hard water
- Soft water
ii. Give one chemical test for water
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT; AGRIC SCIENCE CLASS: SS 2 TIME : 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The sources of farm power that can be affected by pests is ______ (a) water power (b) biogas (c) wind (d) animal power
- The economic importance of poultry keeping include the following except (a) production of ornamental feathers (b) provision of leather (c) provision of employment (d) generation of income
- The following are practiced in pig management except (a) feeding (b) candling (c) castration (d) deworming
- The casual organism of anthrax is (a) bacteria (b) virus (c) fungus (d) nematode
- An example of poultry disease caused by protozoa is____ (a) aspergillosis (b) coccidiosis (c) red water (d) foot and mouth
- Farmer are unable to obtain credit from bank due to their inability to provide _____ (a) collateral (b) interest (c) subsidies (d) implements
- When crop is best cultivated by mechanical means? (a)cassava (b) cocoa (c) yam (d) maize
- Which organism helps to mix soil properly with organic matter at the surface/ (a) algae
(b) bacteria (c) earth worm (d) fungi
- Which animal have only one functional ovary? (a) cow (b) ewe (c) sow (d) hen
- Which crop can be propagated both sexually and asexually? (a) cassava (b) orange (c) groundnut (d) maize
- Crop production is highly influenced in Africa by (a) temperature (b) light (c) rainfall
(d) atmospheric pressure
- The reward for entrepreneur as a factor of production is_____ (a0 rent (b) interest (c) profit
(d) input
- Macro-nutrient considered non-essential as an input___ cowpea production is (a) phosphorus
(b) potassium (c) calcium (d) nitrogen
- A farm tool used in trimming flowers and hedges is ___ (a) pick axe (b) shears (c) hand fork
(d) cutlass
- Farming practices having detrimental effects on the soil include the following except (a) bush burning (b) continuous cropping (c) over grazing (d) crop rotation
- In Mechanized farms farmers will not normally use ____(a) fertilizers (b) plough (c) hoe
(d) improved seeds
- The botanical name of guinea grass is ___ (a) imperata cylindrical (b) cynodon dactylon
(c) andropogon gayanus (d) panicium maximum
- Tikka disease of groundnut is caused by____ (a) protozoa (b) virus (c) fungus (d) bacteria
- The Gestation period of cow is (a) 240 (b) 235 (c) 283 (d) 270
- The main functions of the crop in the digestive tract of birds is to ___ (a) grind food particles
(b) store food (c) absorb water nutrient (d) secrete gastric juice
Theory Part 2: answer four questions in this section
1. Mention 5 common weeds and state their botanical name (b) state 5 effects of weeds on the crop .
2. Whar do you understand by crop improvement
3. Define land as a factor of production. (b) Mention three features of each of the following below
i. Land (ii) Labour (iii) Capital (iv) Entrepreneur
4. State and explain five sources of farm financing
5. State five roles of agricultural extension (b) list five problems facing agricultural extension in Nigeria
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT; AGRIC SCIENCE CLASS: SS 1 TIME : 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Factors affecting the distribution of farm animals are the following except (a) availability of pasture
(b) chemical factors (c) market (d) religion
- Operation Feed the Nation is an example of government agricultural ___ (a) policy (b) programme
(c) regulation (d) democracy
- The following are the different ways through which disease s can spread except (a) contact (b) feeds
(c) ploughing (d) water
- A land hold for a fixed period of time on an agreed condition is known as (a) land reforms (b) free hold
(c) contract (d) lease hold
- Commercial agriculture is preferred to subsistence agriculture because it (a) provide more food for the populace (b) requires less capital (c) does not require the involvement of skilled person (d) centres on cash crops production.
- Land quality in agriculture is usually adversely affected by ____ (a) trampling (b) erosion (c) weeding (d) irrigation
- Rocks formed from accumulation and compaction of sand, plants and animal remain are known as (a0 igneous rock (b) metamorphic rocks (c) sedimentary rocks (d) intrusive rocks
- The soil fractions that are riches in nutrients are ____ (a) sand and silt (b) loam and sand (c) clay and silt (d) clay and loam
- In order to eliminate food shortage farmers should __ (a) cultivate more varieties of crops (b) practice land tenure by inheritance (c) shift from crops to animals production (d) construct more farm buildings.
- Which of the following farm practice that does not have significant harmful effect on the soil? (a) crop rotation (b) land clearing (c) over grazing (d) bush burning
- Sources of irrigation water include the following except (a) lake (b) rivers (c) stream (d) ocean
- Which of the following require daily checking in a tractor? (a) spark plug (b) engine oil (c) air cleaner (d) battery
- Which of the following crop does not require nursery? (a) cocoa (b) mango (c) maize (d) tomato
- Forage crop refers to crop___ (a) growing wild (b) grown specifically for human consumption (c) grown to feed animals in fresh or preserved form (d) used for controlling erosion
- Aphids are___ (a) biting and chewing insects (b0 boring insect (c) piercing and sucking insects (d) eating and destroying insects.
- Fertilization in farm animals takes place in ___ (a0 oviduct (b) cervix (c0 vulva (d) infundibulum
- The process of giving birth to young ones in pig is called____ (a) kidding (b) kiddling (c) farrowing (d) calving
- Which of the following is not a part of the reproductive system of a hen/ (a) funnel (b) litmus (c) ovary (d) ureter
- The hormones that is responsible for maintaining pregnancy in farm animals is __ (a) testosterone (b) progesterone (c) relaxin (d) oxytocin
- Which of the following is not a breed of fowl?____ (a) white leghorn (b) brown leghorn (c) landrace (d) Sussex
Theory Part 2: answer four questions in this section
1. List three breeds of cattle and two breeds of rabbit. (b) State five general characteristics of cattle
2. Mention five by-products of farm animals. (b) Explain five economic importance of hides and skins
3. Explain the following: ( i) culling (ii) charming (iii) tattooing (iv) debeaking (v) castration
b. State five reasons for curling in animals.
4. Explain the following: (i) heat period (ii) mating (iii) parturition (iv) gestation period (v) lactation
5. Write the botanical name of groundnut. (b) Explain the following in groundnut: (i) varieties (ii) climatic requirement (iii) method of propagation (iv) seed rate (v) maturity (vi) weeding (vii) harvesting (viii) storage (c) Mention two pests of groundnut.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 2 hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- . Which of the following element is diatomic (a) iron (b) neon (c) oxygen (d) sodium
- A solid substance with high melting and boiling point is likely to be a/an ____ compound (a) covalent (b) dative covalent (c) electrovalent (d) non-metal
- Which of the following molecules has a triple bond in its structure? (a) CH4 (b) NH4 (c) N2 (d) O2
- Which of the following apparatus can be used to measure a specific volume of a liquid? (a) pipette (b) measuring cylinder (c) beaker (d) flask
- The following substance are normal salt except (a) Al(NO3)3 (b) FeSO4 (c) Nacl (d) Mg(OH)NO3
- Which of the following substance can not be classified as a heavy chemical? (a) AgNO3 (b) CaO (c) CaOCl2 (d) H2CO4
- How many moles are there in 20g of CaCo3 (CaCO3) = 100 (a) 50moles (b) 0.4moles (c) 2.0moles (d) 0.2moles
- Producer gas is a mixture of (a) H2 and O2 (b) Co and H2 (c) CO and O2 (d) CO and N2
- When an element can exist in two or more forms in the same physical state, the element is said to exhibit (a) allotropy (b) isomerism (c) sublimation (d) hygroscopy
- Octane number is highest in petrol containing a high proportion of (a) 2,2,4 trimethy/pentane (b) heptane (c) octane (d) 2-methypenetane
- Destructive desstillation of coal means (a) burning coal to produce water and (O2 (b) heating coal in plentiful supply of air (c) separating coal into various allotropes of carbon. (d) heating coal in absence of air
- Given that R is rate and d is density, the expression R ∞ 1 represents (a) Boyles’s law (b) Grahams law (c) Dalton’s law (d) Charles’s law d
- A solution PH 7 is (a) acidic (b) alkaline (c) dilute (d) neutral
- The following acids are monobasic except (a) trioxonitrate (v) acid (b) hydrochloric acid (c) tetraoxosulphate vi acid (d) ethanoic acid
- The acids present in proyteins is (a) amino acid (b) lactic acid (c) palmitic acid (d) ascorbic acid
- A salt which losses mass when exposed to air is (a0 efflorescent (b) effervescent (c) delinquencies (d) evaporation
- Diamond is hard substance because its carbon atoms are held by (a) vander weals force (b) hydrogen bonding (c) strong covalent bonds (d) strong electrostatic forces
- The liquid fraction in destruction distillation of coal is (a) coke (b) coal tar (c) ammoniacal liquor (d) coal gas
- The maximum number of electrons in the L-shell of an atom is (a) 18 9b) 32 (c) 2 (d) 8
- which of the following is an example of a mixture (a) sand (b) blood (c) common salt (d) water
SECTION B- Answer Any Four Questions
1a. Define chemistry (b) Mention 5 lab apparatus and state their uses (c) state 3 differences between
physical change and chemical change
2a. State 3 Dalton’s atomic theory (b) write the formula for the following compounds (i) sodium trioxonitrate(v) (ii) Ammonium chloride (iii) potassium tetraoxosulphate(vi)
c. Write the electronic configuration of the following (i) oxygen (ii) neon (iii) silicon (iv) chlorine
3a. Mention two crystalline and one amorphous allotropes of carbon. (i) state one use of each
b. State two physical and one chemical properties of carbon(iv) oxide (ii) give two reasons why CO2 is used as a fire extinguisher.
4. Define the following: (i) Hygros copy (ii) efflorescence (iii) sgive one example of salt that exhibit this properties
b. State two methods of preparing soluble and insoluble salt (i) Sate one example of a soluble and insoluble salt (c)Give two uses of base/alkalis
5a. Define (i) cracking (ii) knocking (ii) state 4 tractions of petroleum (b) distinguish between heavy chemicals and fine chemicals giving examples of each
c. Name two local materials that is used for soap production (i) state one importance of chemical industry
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: C.R.K CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The prayer where people commit themselves anew to God is ____ (a) prayer of adoration (b) prayer of supplication (c) prayer of dedication (d) prayer of confession
- _____ is not among effectiveness of prayer (a) faith (b) wisdom (c) love (d) steadfastness
- All are factors that can hinder prayer except ____ (a) love (b) faithless (c) sin (d) asking wrongly
- _____ and ____ _ are conditions for effective prayer (a) love and kindness (b) steadfastness and wisdom (c) fasting and praying (d) perseverance and faith
- Christian are expected to subjected themselves to every human institution and ____ (a) law of the land (b) civil authorities (c) highest authorities (d) government authority
- Persecution is an act of _____ (a) molesting (b) greeting (c) stressing (d) gisting
- Christianity involves____- (a) loving oneself (b) self denial (c) saving grace (d) steadfastness
- Christians should be reproach for _____ (a) murder (b) wrong doing (c) stealing (d) Christ sake
- What according to Peter should be the right attitude to persecution (a) glorify God (b) be ashame (c) self pity (d) be angry
- Prayer is very important in the life of ____ (a) Christian (b) pagan (c) idol worshippers (d) trader
- What is humility (a) ability to show ones worth (b)belief in personal ambition (c) lowliness of mind (d) devoid of pride and arrogance
- In time of discouragement and disillusionment, Christians should ____ (a) pray (b) cry (c) worry (d) dance
- To tempt means ____ (a) to do something wrong (b) commit adultery (c) sin (d) make a person do something wrong.
- One of this is the consequence of sin (a) blessing (b) loving (c) suffering (d) peace
- The life in Christ is based on ____ (a) grace of God (b) human wisdom (c) strength (d) personal appeal and determination
- Family is the smallest unit of the ____ (a) school (b) church (c) society 9d) community
- The responsibility of the father is ___ (a) love their wives (b) ignore their wives (c) worship their wives (d) beat their wives
- Someone who pay his taxes rates and levies is ____ (a) good neighbour (b) a good citizen (c) good friend (d) a lawyer.
- Faith means ____ (a) arrogant and harshness (b) trust and belief (c) wisdom and intelligent (d) kind and humble.
- To be partial means _____ (a) happy and kind (b) honest and religious (c) privileged and obedience (d) discriminate and unjust.
SECTION B: Answer 4 questions only
1a. Define prayer (b) Name and explain the types of prayer (c) Give the effectiveness of prayer
2a. With reference to St. Peter, what are the characteristic of Christian life in the community
(b) State the behavioral patterns which Peter recommended for Christians servants living among non-Christians
3a. According to Peter, Christians should be what? (b) List some of how Peter admonished Christian leader
4. Give St. Peter advise to the Christian leaders
5. Define persecution
6. Narrate Peter’s teaching on Christian’s persecution
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION /2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: C.R.K CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- God is a consuming fire but he is slow to ____ (a) happiness (b) anger (c) kindness (d) giving
- One of these is not the theme of Amos prophesy as summed up in the book of Amos (a) the judge took bribe (b) the poor were robbed (c) the poor were loved (d) there were cases of force slavery
- True repentance and forsaking always attracts God’s ____ () anger (b) mercy (c) unforgiveness (d) punishment
- David laid with _____ wife (a) Arab’s (b) Elijah’s (c) Uriah’s ( d) Solomon
- The first of those commandments forbids the Israelites from _____ (a) loving their neightbours (b) worshipping another gods (c) committing adultery (d) stealing
- When Elijah prepared his offering on, he request the prophets to ____ (a) pour water on the offering (b) bring the offering (c) celebrate with the offering (d) keep the offering
- In the case of Ahab, his greed led to the destruction of ____ (a) future (b) happiness (c) house (d) generation
- Gehazi was moved by ____ (a) greed (b)joy (c) love (d) humility
- Naaman was told to dip himself in river ____ (a) Jordan (b) Badagry (c) Isashi (d) Lagos
- Parent have the responsibility to give their children ____ (a) proper training and discipline (b) good food (c) proper education (d) good knowledge
- Asa reigned for ____ years (a) 50yrs (b) 21yrs (c) 31yrs (d) 41yrs
- `Jehoshaphat succeeded his father as king at the age (a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 25 (d) 20
- Samuel took over Judge in Israel after the death of ____ (a) Saul (b) David (c) Eli (d) Esua
- The Lord said they should gather -____ portion (a) a day’s (b) everyday (c) a day (d) everyday’s
- The story of ____ wa another case of somebody who had absolute trust in God. (a) Daniel (b) Solomon (c) David (d) Job
- ____ is defined as the assurance of things hoped for (a) hope (b) joy (c) faith (d) prayer
- “With God , all things are possible” such as the case of ___ ___ and ___ (a) Daniel, Solomon and David (b) Shedrack, Meshack and Abednego (c) Matthew, John and Peter (d) James, Luke and Simon
- ____swallowed Jonah (a) shark (b) snail (c) wail (d) big fish
- Jonah went to Joppa and boarded a ship to ____ (a) Israel (b) Egypt (c) Tarshishi (d) Asia
- The supremacy of God on earth is ____ (a) questionable (b) unquestionable (c) knowledge (d) acceptable
SECTION B: Answer any four questions
1. How did Jonah react to God’s message
2a. Discuss the experience of Jonah in the belly of the fish
(b) In order to escape from the presence of God, Jonah boarded a ship at?
3 The people of Israel had no fear of God in their heart. Discuss
4. Give the theme of Amos’ message to the Israelites
5. Describe the practice which Amos condemned in the life of Israel
6. Discuss Hosea’s marital experience and how it demonstrates God’s love for Israel
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: GOVERNMENT CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Sovereignty implies all the following except (a) the highest authority in a state (b) a state of political independence (c) unlimited powers of a state to make and enforce laws (d) the supremacy of political parties
- The origin of federalism in Nigeria could be traced to the division of the country into (a) three provinces (b) four provinces (c) two provinces (d) five province
- Before governor Boundillon left office, he recommended for the introduction of (a) province (b) regionalism (c) regions (d) house of assembly
- ____constitution improved on Richard’s constitution by creating house of assembly . (a) Clifford’s (b) Lyttiton’s (c) Macpherson’s (d) Lugard’s
- The origin of federalism in Nigeria started the year ___(a) 1941 (b) 1939 (c) 1930 (d) 1940
- One of the factors responsible for Nigerian federalism is ____ (a) British colonial policy (b) federalism before independence (c) separation of power (d) supremacy of the constitution
- All are features of federalism except (a) written and rigid (b) geographical factors (c) power derived from the constitution (d) separation of power
- The Nigeria democracy party was formed in ____ (a0 1933 (b) 1923 (c) 1925 (d) 1935
- ____ was popularly referred to as “father of Nigerian nationalism (a) Lord Lugard (b) Sir John Macpherson ( c) Sir Clifford (d) Sir Herbert Macauley
- ____found Lagos Daily News s (a) NNDP (b) NCNC (c) NYm (d) NPN
- The NCNC was formed in _____ (a) 1955 (b) 1933 (c) 1966 (d) 1944
- Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe was the first general secretary of (a) NPN (b) NYM (c) (c) NCNC (d) NNDP
- Nigeria youth movement featured characters like (a) Emest Ikoli (b) Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe (c) Hebert Macaulay (d) Obafemi Awolowo
- ____ started as a cultural organization (a) NNDP (b) NPN (c) NYM (d) NPC
- Pressure group can be defined as (a) aggressive group of people (b) organized group of (c) oppressive group (d) violent group
- All are types of pressure groups except ____ (a) economic pressure groups (b) professional pressure group (c) educational pressure groups (d) environmental pressure group
- ____ is not a danger posted by the activities of pressure groups (a) social disorder (b) misrepresentation (c) they are self centred (d) large seize
- ____can created in 1914, after the amalgamation by Lord Lugar (a) office (b) council (c) state (d) nation
- Membership was ___ (a) official and students (b) lecturers and unions (c) teachers and students (d) traders and customers
- The ful meaning of NAP (a) Nigeria Advanced party (c) National people’s party of Nigeria (d) Nigeria people’s party
SECTION B: Answer any four questions
1. Describe the composition of the Executive council of the 1922 Clifford constitution
b. identify any five ways in which the Clifford constitution was significant to Nigeria
2. Highlight six political changes introduced into the Nigerian political system by the 1954 constitution.
3. Describe six achievement of the National party of N igeria between 1979 and 1983
4. Identify any six roles of the traditional rulers in the pre-colonial West Africa
5a. Define public opinion
b. Identify any five disadvantage of the system
6a. Define public corporation. (b) Give five reasons for setting up a public corporation in in your country
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: GOVERNMENT CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Educational pressure group has to do with ____ (a) lecturers (b) teachers (c) students (d) traders
- ____ are the organized professional associations like the Nigeria medical association, Nigerian Bar association etc. (a) economic pressure group (b) professional pressure group (c) promotional interest groups (d) educational groups
- All are functions of pressure groups except (a) offer useful suggestion (b) promote economic stability (c) promote interest group (d) act as a link.
- ____ is a factor that can hinder the success of pressure group (a) lobbying (b) strike (c) poor leadership (d) the mass media
- All are functions of public opinion except (a) need of the people (b) cabinet reshuffle (c) difficult to measure (d) support of the people
- _____ i
- s a demerit of public opinion (a) not often reliable (b) through election (c) letters to government (d) channels of communication
- Through election, through pressure group and political parties are ___ (a) how public opinion is measured (b) features of public opinion (c) formation of public opinion (d) functions of public opinion
- Constitutionalism act as a ____ (a) check ad limit (b) check and balance (c) equality before the law (d) rule of law
- A citizen is a ___ (a) legal member (b) illegal member (c) private member (d) government
- _____ is a way of acquiring citizenship (a) marriage (b) reading (c) education (d) working
- Dual citizenship means a person that hold citizenship of ____ (a) one country (b) three countries (c) two countries (d) four countries
- Somebody can become a citizen of a country where he lives through _____ (a) honorary (b) birth (c) registration (d) nationalism
- The type of government that is headed by a queen is known as (a) monarchy (b) federal (c) presidential (d) republican
- A system whereby there is only one legislative chamber parliament is referred to as ____ (a) unicameral (b) Bi-cameral (c) confederal (d) monarchical
- The doctrine of the rule of law is credit to ____ (a) John Lockey (b) A.V Dicey (c) Thomas Hoobes (d) J.J. Rousseau
- There are ____ types of bills (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 2
- Dumping ground is a demerit of ____ (a) Bicameralism (b) uni-cameralism (c) check and balances (d) rule of law
- A bill passes ____ stages before becoming a law (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 5
- Democracy is defined as government of the people by the people and for the people by (a) Michael Jackson (b) Abraham Lincoln (c) India Jones (d) Mrs. Abubakar
- Government can be define as ______ (a) the motor (b) the machinery 9c) the method (d) the system.
SECTION B: Answer any four questions
1a. Define fundamental human right (b) Name and explain 4 reasons why it was included in the constitution.
2a. Define citizenship (b) Highlight ways of acquiring citizenship
3a. Define constitution (b) list the purpose of constitution
4a. define public opinion (b) Identify the features of public opinion
5a. Define pressure groups (b) Name and explain the types of pressure groups
6a. List the factors that can aids the effective operation of pressure group
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A -Answer all questions from this section
- Nigeria is located between _______ and ______ of the equator
- Nigeria is located between __________ and _________ of Greenwich meridian
- Nigeria is bounded in the north by ________________
- Nigeria is bounded in the east by _______________
- Nigeria is bounded in the south by _________________
- Nigeria is bounded in the west by _______________
- Nigeria is bounded in the North-east by_______________
- Nigeria is ______________ largest country in west Africa
- The total land area of Nigeria is approximately_____________________
- The greatest distance of Nigeria from east to West is Approximately ___________
- The distance from North south is approximately_______________
- Nigeria came the into existence in ____________________
Section B: Theory- Answer 5 Question
SECTION B:THEORY– answer 4 question
1a. Draw an outline map of Nigeria. On the map, locate and name:-(i) the gulf of, Guinea: (ii) the bight of
Bony (iii) latitude 40N: (iv) longitude 3oE and 15oE; (v) the country to the western border (vi) the federal capital territory
b. Describe the size and locate of Nigeria in relation to other countries of West Africa
2a. On a sketch map of Nigeria, locate and name and (i) river Niger, (ii) Jos plateau (iii) Adamawa
mountain (mt) (iv) Idance hill and (v) cross river)
b. State four characteristics of Nigeria river
3a. Describe a sketch map of Nigeria to show any three vegetation belts.
b. Describe any effects of climate on the vegetation of any one of the belt shown in (a) above and describe
any uses of each
4a. On a outline map of Nigeria, show the main soil zone
b. Name any one crop that is grown in each of the zones shown on your map
c. Describe the soil characteristics that have favoured the cultivation of the type of crop in each zone
5. Draw an outline map of Nigeria. On the map, show and name (i) one area of sparse population (ii) one area of moderate population (iii) one area of dense population (iv) one town in (5a) above
b. Outline three factor responsible for the dense population in the area, shown in 5(a)(iii) above
c. Highlight three problems of dense population(a) (iii) above
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 2 ½ hrs
SECTION A-Answer all questions from this section
- West Africa is located between latitude ______________ and ___________ of the equator
- West Africa is located between longitude____________ and of the Greenwich meridian
- West Africa is bounded in the western by _________________
- West Africa is bounded in the north by __________________________
- West Africa is bounded in the south by __________________________________
- West Africa is bounded in the east by _________________________________
- West Affrica occupies about __________________ of the area of Africa
- West Africa has a total land area of approximately ___________________________
- West Africa has a regional extent of about ___________________ from west to east
- West Africa has a region extent of about _____________________ from north to south
SECTION B: Theory –answer any four questions
1a. On an outline map of west Africa, locate and name (a) Accra (b) Bamako (c) Niamey (d) Dakar
(ii) name two land locked countries in west Africa
2a On an outline map of west Africa, locate and name: (i) the full course of the river Niger (ii) the futa Djallon highlands (iii) the Guinea highlands (iv) two tributaries of the river Niger
b. Highlight four ways in which the river Niger is of importance of the economic development of west Africa (c) Outline four factors which inhibit the use of the river Niger
3a. On a sketch map of West Africa, locate and name one area for the mining of the following materials (i) gold, (ii) petroleum (iii) iron ore (iv) bauxite
b. Explain how one of the minerals is mined (c) State two importance of one of the minerals.
4a. On an outline map of west Africa, locate and name one area where the following crop are group (i) cocoa (ii) rubber (iii) coffee (iv) groundnut
b. State four problems and four solution to the problems facing agriculture in West Africa
5a. On a sketch map of West Africa, show and names: (i) two area of population densities (ii) two areas of low densities
b. Explain how the variation in population density in west Africa has by the following: -(i) historical factors (iii) agriculture (ii) mining
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 2 hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The following are useful effect of micro-organisms EXCEPT (a) production of vaccines (b) tanning of leather (c) decay of meat (d) curing of tobacco
- In commensalism, A (a) one of the organisms gains and the other losses (b) both organisms benefits from the association (c) one of the organisms gains while the other gains not loses (d) one of the organisms produces extra cellular digestive juices
- Parasitism can best be defined as an association between two organisms in which (a) both organisms benefit (b) one organisms gains and the other gains nor loses (d) one organisms gains and the other loses
- Which of the following best describes the adaption of the earthworm to its habitat? (a) living in burrow during the day to prevent desiccation (b) burrowing into soft soil to store food (c) possession of segmented body to reduce movement (c) possession of a few (d) possession of a few bristles for defence
- Micro-organism which breakdown dead organisms and absorb their contents are called (a) decomposers (b) consumers (c) parasites (d) commensals
- In medicine bacteria have proved very useful due to the production of (a) nitrate (b) antibiotics (c) curred tobacco (d) tanned leather
- The major pollutant around airport residential areas is (a) oil spillage (b) soot (c) noise (d) dust
- which of the following substances is not a conservable natural resources? (a) minerals (b) air (c) soil (d) water
- Which of the following actions do not reflects the objectives of conservation of natural resources? (a) protection of the ecosystem (b) saving some wild animals to enable others survive (d) prevention of discriminate killings of organisms
- many disease caused by bacteria can be treated and cured by using (a0 antiseptics (b) antibiotics (c) antigens (d) antibodies
- A feature which adapts birds for flight is the possession of (a) legs with claws (b) two walking legs (c) scaly (d) light bone
- The poisonous substance produced by bacteria is known as (a) toxin (b) cocus (d) syphilis
- Which of the following insects is not carrier of micro-organisms? (a) housefly (b) tse-tse fly (c) mosquito (d) cockroach
- All are examples of micro-organisms except (a) worms (b) bacteria (c) protozoa (d) virus
- Which of the following is not beneficial effect of certain micro-organisms?(a) baking of bread (b) nitrogen fixation (c) food spoilage (c) brewing of beers
- The process of growing micro-organisms in a sterile growth medium is referred to as (a) colony (b) sterility (c) carte (d) culturing
- Which of the following is not a natural culture of micro-organisms? (a) agar (b) blood (c) food (d) soil (d) soil and air
- The World Health Organization performs the following functions EXCEPT (a) training medical personnel (b) promoting research (c) standardization of drugs (d) taking care of ex-service men
- Cholera is a disease (a) that brings about pains in the limbs (b) whose pathogen is introduced in water or food (c) whose pathogen is a virus carried by mosquitoes (d) which causes high body temperature
- Setting international quarantine regulations is an exclusive function of the (a) international Red cross Organization (b) UNICEF (c) immigration department (d) Nigerian medical association
SECTION B:
1a. What are micro-organisms? (b). List 5 major groups of micro-organisms (c) describe four ways in which micro-organisms enter our bodies
2. What is meant by “conservation of natural resources”? (b) Give five ways by which the Nigerian government ensures the conservation of natural resources (c) Mention 3 problems associated with conservation
3. Explain the term: (i) association (ii) tolerance (iii) adaption (b) Mention five types of association
4a. What is population/ (b) Mention 4 types of pollution (c) state two causes and two effects of any 2 mentioned in 4b above
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: BIOLOGY CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 2 hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Which part of the gill fish is involved in gascious exchange (a) gill silts (b) gill arches (c) gill covers (d) gill filament
- Gaseous exchange occur through the following structure in some organism EXCEPT (a) spiracle and tracheae (b) alveoli and hings (c) stomata and lenticels (d) chloroplast and plastids
- Which of these factors are common to both aquatic and territorial habitat (a) high, rainfall and turbidity (b) light, temperature and tide (c) high, rainfall and temperature (d) rainfall, turbidity and salmity
- Which of the following desert plants have their leaves reduced to spines for water conservation? (a) sage brush (b) date plan (c) prickly spear (d) cactus
- one of then animals mentioned below is best adapted to desert life (a) camel (b) rodent (c) horse (d) leopard
- Which of the following pairs of structures does NOT perform similar function? (a) lungs and spiracles (b) root hair and mammalian hair (c) feathers and scales (d) contractile vacuole and kidney
- Which of the following does NOT occur during inhalation in mammals? (a) rib cage is raised up (b) diagram contracts and becomes dome shaped (c) inter-coastal muscle contracts (d) volume of the thoracic cavity increases
- The oxygen released during photosynthesis is obtained (a) from the catalytic splitting of carbon-dioxide in plant tissue (b) from the break down of glucose molecule in cells (c) during the photolysis of water using energy trapped in chlorophyll (d) by the excretion of excess oxygen in plant tissues
- Which of the following terms ensures the survival of an organism in its environment? (a) hibernation (b) succession (c) adaptation (d) competition
- The possession of breathing roots is a characteristics of plant growing in (a) mangrove swamp (b) coastal savanna (c) guinea savanna (d) shrub biome
- Transpiration in plants results in the (a) closure of the stomata at night (b) continuous streaming of water through the plant (c) pale, green colouration of portions of the leaves (d) opening of stoma
- Competition among individuals of a population increases (a) number of organisms (b) survival of the fittest (c) availability of nutrient supplied (d) enlargement of the territory
- Rabbits cannot survive in an aquatic habitat because they have (a) fore and hind-limbs (b) no scales (c) no fins (d) no gills
- green plants lose water to the atmosphere through the process of (a) respiration (b) photosynthesis (c) transpiration (d) translocation
- If a piece of abandoned farmland went through series of charges and because established with a permanent plant and animal population, it could be said to have undergone (a) transformation (b) succession (c) competition (d) evolution
- Trees in savannah habitat usually have heavy thick bark which mainly (a) reduces the rate of transpiration (b) protect them from the scorching sun (c) protect them from heavy winds (d) resist bush fires
- The team community is defined as (a) the different groups of plants and animals in the same area and interacting with each other (b) the consumes and producers living a habitat (c) living organisms interacting with factors of an environment (d) animals which mutually derive benefit from their association
- In the adult frog, gaseous exchange takes place through (a) buccal cavity, skin lings (b) buccal cavity, skin and spriales (c) gill, skin and buccal cavity (d) tympanic membrane, lungs and gills
- The following a observation concerning succession are true EXCEPT that the (a) pioneer community has fever species (b) middle stages communities are most diverse (c) climax community has the greatest number of species (d) total biomass of the community measures as successive progresses
- Most tropical plants shed their leaves during dry weather conditions in order to (a) reduce their growth rate (b) conserve water (c) reduce competition (d) minimize the rate of photosynthesis
SECTION B
1a. Write the chemical equation of the following process:
- Aerobic respiration
- Anaerobic respiration
- photosynthesis
b. Mention 4 conditions necessary for respiration
2a. Explain the following terms:
- Adaption
- Climax community
- Succession
- Overcrowding.
3a. What is population?
- State 5 effects of overpopulation on a community
- Mention 3 abiotic factors affecting population
4a. Mention the other names for grass land and
b. Define grassland and land
c. Define the term forest.
d. List lsit and describe any 2 strata of the forest
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
IDANWO ASEKAGBA SAA KETA ODUN 2019/ 2020
KILASI: SS 1 AKOKO: Wakati Kan Pere
Dahun ibeere meji pere ni ipin yii!
1. Tumo ayoka ese wura geesi yii si Ojulowo ede Yoruba ponbele?
“But they that wait uon the LORD, shall renew their strength, they shall mount up with wings as eagles they shall run and not be weary and they shall walk and not faint, so therefore be prayerful”
2. Ko leta aigbagbefe kan sile ise iwe iroyin Alalaye to wa ni “182, Ikorodu Road, Ketu. fun ipo akowe iroyin to jafafa. (oju ewe meji pere tito).
APA KIN-INNI
Dahun gbogbo ibeere to wa labe isori yii daadaa!
- “Olu will travel by Air” tumo si? Olu____ (a) yoo rin irin ajo ninu baluu (b) yoo nrin ajo loke (d) lee rin ajo loke (e) rin irin afefe
- “ Nobody is above mistake” tumo si? ko seni____ (a) to bori awon idanwo (b) to koja asise (d) to koja adanwo (e) to bori asise nla
- Kini ise baba Ogungbemi? (a) Agbe (b) Ode (d) Awo (e) Soja
- Ise-owo ti Ruutu ko ni? (a) Atanso (b) Onidiri (d) Apeja (e) Telo
- Ise ti Dele orikan fila meji lo ka ni? (a) akoniwaju adajo (b) olofintoto (d) jagunjagun (e) adajo
- Nibo ni ile itura Maradan wa? (a) Eko (b) Ibadan (d) Ogba (e) Oyo
- Nibo ni moto Ogungbemi ti jaamu? (a) Koko nooti (b) Ade Oyo (d) Gada Asejire (e) Oke Ado Ibadan
- Ewo lakekoo ni fasiti Ile Ife? (a) Funmi (b) Mojera (d) Iya Segun (e) Ropo
- Mojere tun n je ? (a0 Ifedapo (b) Ropo (d) Olusola (e) Olawunmi
- Oye ti a lee fida eniyan Lola ni? (A) Apena (b) Atayese (d) Oba (e) Oloye Egbe Awo
- Ewo ni Oruko Amutorunwa? (a0 Adebayo (b) Ogungbemi (d) Ilori (e) Agbotikuyo omo odo agba
- Oruko abiku ni? (a) Ige (b) Adebola (d) Ojo/Aina (d) Malomo (e) Olugbodi
- Irin ise Alagbede ni? (a) Ewiri (b) Ada/Oko (d) Ibon ati Ofa (e) Orun/Ofa
- Onka Yoruba fun “640” ni? (a) ojilegbeta (b) ojilelegbeta (d) ogojile ogota (e) egbeta le ogun meji
- 1620? (a) Ogun ati merindinlogun (b) merindinlogunleogun (d) okoolenirinwo (e) okoolelegbejo
- Adiresi meji ni leta yii ni? (a) aigbagbefe (b) gbefe (d) nla (e) ore
- “Oloju rabata bi ina moto” je apere? (a) owe (b) eebu (d) akanlo ede (e) alo apamo ati alo apagbe
- “Monotheism” tumo si? (a0 oko ati aya (b) kemika oloorun (d) igba olorun kan soso gbo (e) alaye kikun lori eko Pataki
- Ko deeti oni lede Yoruba?
- Ijapa se iru oore wo fun ekun? (a) irun didi (b) ila kiko fun omo re (d) nipa kikole fun-un (e) o tuu ekun sile
Aseye ati Aseyege O! Ase
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
IDANWO ASEKAGBA SAA KETA ODUN 2019/ 2020
KILASI: SS 2 AKOKO: Wakati Kan Pere
Dahun ibeere merin ni ipin akoko yii” ibeere akoko (No 1 pon dandan)
1. Tumo ayoka kukuru yii si ojulowo ede Yoruba ode oni? “ People who listen and take into correction when they are corrected, will live long, but those who will not admit that they are wrong are in danger of life, because the wicked things we do to others might hunt us all the days of our live”.
2. Ko aroko ti ko din ni otaleloodunrun eyo oro (360 words). Lori akori to so wipe “IJOBA ALAGBADA DARA JU IJOBA OLOOGUN LO”
3. Daruko igbese meje inu Eto Igbeyawo nile Yoruba pelu alaye lati fidi igbese kookan mule?
4. Pelu alaye, Daruko orisi oruko amutorunwa ile Yoruba mewa
APA KEJI
- Omo ti a se nnkan osu bi ni? (a)Ilori (b) Ajayi (d) Babatunde (e) Iyatunde
- Igbese keta eto Igbeyawo ni? (a) Isihun (b) Baba mogba (d) Ifidimule re (e) Idana
- Asa Iran Ara Eni lowo ni? (a) Owe (b) Alarerna (d) Olokololowo (e) Asingba ati Asingba
- Okan lara Oge Sise ni? (a) Ara finfin (b) Legiisi wiwo (d) Atike kikun ati ete tito (e) Ifenukonu ife
- Okan lara aroko pipa ni? (a) Edan Ogboni (b) Igbomimu (d) Ounje ajeyo (e) Ejo elejo riro
- ____ ni omo ti a bi lasiko Ojo? (a) Ige (b) Bejide (d) Ojo 9e) Olugbodi ati Babarimsa
- Tani baba Yoruba? (a0 Lamurudu (b) Oduduwa (d) Okanbi (e) Olowu
- Orirun Yoruba ni? (a) Eko (b) Ile Ife (d) Oyo (e) Abuja
- Gombo je ila awon ara? (a) Owu (b) Oyo (d) Ondo (e) Ekiti
- Oruko Oye oba ilu Agbadarigidi ni?(a) Oba (b) Akran (d) Olu (e) Ole
FONOLOJI
- Adako fonoloji ‘p” ni? (A) [kp] (b) [p] (d) [pk] (e) [KP]
- Orisi fonoloji meji ni? (a) afojuri ati aifojuri (b) kekere ati nla (d) roboto ati perese
- Kini itumo “IPA”? (a) International Phonetic Association (b) Instructions Putting Adhere! (d) Ipa Pataki Asa (e) Ile Pupo Amo
- Ona meji ti a lee gba pe faweli ede Yoruba ni? (a) roboto ati perese (b) nla ati kekere (d) ohun oke ati isale (e) oloro ati elebe
- Konsonanti arehon ni? (a) R (b) P (d) b (e) Y
- Konsonanati aikunyun niwonyi? (a) F,H,K,P,S,S,T (b) B,D,T,W,Y (d) N,M (e) G,H,J,L,R,W,Y
- Odun wo la gbe egbe” IPA” dide? (a) 1974 (b) 1960 (d) 2001 (e) 1802
- Konsonanti aranmupe ni? (a) m ati n (b) b ati d (d) s ati s (e) p/y
- Tan-an-na ni a fi npe? (a) H (b) K (d) R (e) faweli Yoruba
- Ko deeti oni lede Yoruba?
LITIRESO
- Talo se Oju ri? (a) Wole Soyinka (b) Kola Oni (d) Kola Akinlade (e) Sunday Eso Oluborode
- ____ ni ise baba Ogungbemi? (a) Agbe (b) Awo (d) Ode 9e) Awako
- ___lo ge lapa? (a) Bakare (b) Ogungbemi (d) Ruutu (e) Ogunlabi
- Talo se Asiri Ammokunjale tu? (a) Kola Oni (b) Kola Akinlade (d) Sunday Eso Oluborode (e) Wole Soyinka
- Talo se Iyawo Alarede? (a) Kola Akinlade (b) Sunday Eso Oluborode (d) Wole Soyinka (e) Kola Oni
- ____ni olofin toto? (a) Tunde (b) Akin (d) Ilesanmi (e) Alao
- ____ ni atopinpin? (a) Tunde (b0 Alao (d) Ilesanmi (e) Akin
- ____lo bi Duro? (a) Folasade (b) Adunni (d) Asake (e) Yewande
- Oruko baba Duro ni? (a) Alao (b) Orimoogunje (d) Onisegun (e) Omotoso Onisitoo
- Kini Oruko Oluko ede Yoruba wa?
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT; MATHEMATICS CLASS: SS 1
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions in this section
- Given the length of a square is 9cm find the length of its diagonals to the nearest cm = ? (a) 27cm (b) 16cm (c) 3cm (d) 14cm
- What is the sum of the roots of the equation x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 (a) 1 (b) -1 (c) -3 (d) 5
- Given that the base radius and vertical height of a cone is 20cn and 21cm respectively, calculate the slant edge of the cone (a) 32cm (b) 29cm (c) 20cm (d) 15
- Solve for m in 2m2 – 5m + 3 = 0 (a) 1 or 3/2 (b) -1 or -3/2 (c) -3/2 or 2
- Given the roots of an equation to be -5 and 4, the equation is (a) 2x2 + x – 24 (b) x2 – 2x + 20 (c) 2x2 + x – 20 (d) x2 + x – 20
- The number of oranges bought by a woman is represented in a pie chart as 720 if total fruits bought are 20. How many oranges did she buy? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 1
- If 32x = 27, find x (a) 3/2 (b) 6 (c) 1 1/3 (d) 12/3
- Simplify (0.125)1/3 (a) ½ (b) 2 (c) -1/3 (d) 3
- The logarithm of 3.746 is (a) 0.5736 (b) 1.5736 (c) 1.5736 (d) 2.5736
- Evaluate x, if 45:72 = 40:x (a) 48 (b) 64 (c) 81 (d) 37
- The standard of the numbers 6,0,4,3 and 2 is (a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 3
- What is the value of P2q – q2p if P = 3, q =-1? (a) -12 (b) 12 (c) -6 (d) 8
- Factorizes the expression 2e2 – 3c + 1 (a) (e + 1)(2c + 1) (b) (2c – 1)(e – 1) (c) (1 – 2c) (e + 1) (d) (e – 1)(e + 1)
- What must be added to x2 – 3x to make it a perfect square?(a) 9/2 (b) 6 (c) 9/4 (d) 9
- Solve the equation 0.2x = 1/25 (a) -5 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 5
- Simplify √147 – √75 + √12, leaving your answer in surd form (a)14√3 (b)3 √3 (c)4 √3 (d)28 √3
- solve the following simultaneous equations: 2x + 3y = 7, x + 5y= 0 (a) x = 1/5, y = -1(b)x = -1/5, y = 1 (c) x = 5, y = -1 (d) x = -5, y = -1
- In the diagram below, find the value of XY, correct to one decimal place
360 13cm
- 7.6cm (b) 9.4cm (c) 10.5cm (d) 16.1cm
Y Z
- If ( ¼ )(2-y) = 1, find y (a) -2 (b) -1/2 (c) ½ (d) 2
- If (3y – 4 ) is one of the factors of 6y2 – 11y + 4, find the other factors (a) ((3y – 1) (b) (2y – 1) (c) ( 1 + 3y) (d) (2y – 3)
PART 2: THEORY
Instruction: Answer any four 4 questions
- Calculate the curved surface area and the volume of the shape below. With top radius 8cm,base radius 12cm and height 13cm
8cm
13cm
12cm
2a. The angle of elevation of the top of a flag pole is 640 from a point 32m away from the post of the flag pole. Find the angle of elevation of a flag half-way up the flag pole from the point correct to the nearest degree
2b. Solve 3x2 – 6x – 9 = 0, by completing the square
3a. construct a triangle XYZ such that /XY/=7cm and /YZ/=10cm and angle <YXZ = 1050 . draw a circle to pass through the vertices of the triangle XYZ. Find the radius of the circle
4a. Out of 30 candidates applying for a post, 17 have degrees,, 15 diplomas, and 4 neither degree nor diploma.
- Draw a Venn diagram to illustrate this piece of information
- How many of them have both?
4b. Find the quadratic equations whose roots are -5/4 and 2/3
5. The marks scored by 50 students in mathematics examinations are as follows:
60 54 40 67 53 73 37 55 62 43
44 69 39 32 45 58 48 67 39 51
46 59 40 52 61 49 23 60 59 47
65 58 74 47 40 59 68 51 50 50
71 51 26 36 38 70 46 40 51 42
(a) Using class intervals 21-30, 31-49… prepare a frequency distribution table.
(b) Calculate the mean mark of the distribution
(c) Construct the cumulative frequency curve and the histogram of the distribution
( d) from your graph determine the mode and the median
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOL
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020
SUBJECT; MATHEMATICS CLASS: SS 2
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions in this section
- If Sin Ɵ = 3/5, find tan Ɵ (a) ¾ (b) 3/5 (c) 2/5 (d) ¼
- Find the value of Sin 450 – Cos 300 (a) 2 +√6 (b) √2 + √3 (c) √2 + √3 (d) √2 – √3
4 4 2 2
- A cylindrical pipe 50m long with radius 7m has one end opened what is the total surface area of the pipe? (a) 700πm2 (b) 350πm2 (c) 98πm2 (d) 749π2
- Two coins are tossed twice the probability of getting at least one head is (a) 0 (b) ¼ (c) ½ (d) ¾
- If cos Ɵ = 8/15, where is an acute , find sin Ɵ (a) 13/15 (b) 8/17 (c) 15/17 (d) 16/17
- Find the equation of a line parallel to y = -4x + 2 through (2, 3) (a) y -4x + 11= 0 (b) y + 4x – 11 = 0 (c) y + 4x + 11 = 0 (d) y – 4x – 11 = 0
- If y = (2x + 1)3, find dy/dx. (a) 3(2x + 1)2 (b) 6(2x + 1)2 (c) 3(2x + 1) (d) 6(2 + 1)
- If P = 2 -3 What is P-1?(a)1/5 3/5 (b) -1/5 3/5 (c) 1/5 3/5 (d) -1/5 -3/5
1 1 1/5 2/5 -1/5 2/5 -1/5 2/5 -1/5 -2/5
- Solve the inequalities -6 ≤ 4 – 2x < 5 –x (a) -1≤ x < 6 (b) -1 < x < 5 (c) -1< x ≤ 5 (d) -1 ≤ x < 6
- Find the sum to infinity of the following series 0.5 + 0.05 + 0.005 + 0.0005 + …… (a) 5/9 (b) 5/8 (c) 5/7 (d) 1
- The 3rd term of an A.P is -9 and the 7th term is -29. Find the 10th term (a) 44 (b) -44 (c) -165 (d) 165
- A student measures a piece of rope and found that it was 1.26m long. If the actual length of the rope was 1.2m, what was the percentage error in measurement? (a) 0.40% (b) 0.25% (c) 0.01% (d) 0.80%
- Simplify (3/4 of 4/9 ÷ 9½ ) ÷ 15/19 (a) 1/25 (b) 1/36 (c) 1/5 (d) ¼
- Evaluate (81/16)-1/4 x 2-1 (a) 1/3 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 1/6
- Rationalize 2 √3 + √5 (a) 3 √15 + 11 (b)3√15 – 11 (c) 3√15 -11 (d) 3√15 + 11
√2 – √3 2 2
- Express the product of 0.21 and 0.34 in standard form (a) 7.14 x 10-3 (b) 7.14 x 10-2 (c) 7.14 x 10-1 (d) 7.14 x 10-4
- In a survey of 50 news paper readers, 40 read champion and 30 reads Guardian, how many read both paper? (a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 20
- Solve for x and y if x – y = 2 and x2 – y2 = 8 (a) (1, 3) (b) (-1, 3) (c) (3, 1) (d) (-3, 1)
- If y varies directly as the square root of x and y = 3, when x = 16. Calculate y when x = 64 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 3
- If x is inversely proportion to y and x = 2½ when y = 2, find x if y = 4 (a) 2¼ (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 1¼
PART 2
Instruction: Answer all questions in part A and any two question part B
1a If 21-y x 2y-1= 82-3y, find y
2y+ 2
1b. A rope 60cm long is made to form a rectangle. If the length is four times it’s breadth, calculate correct to 1.d.p the (i) length (ii) diagonal of the rectangle
1c. The probabilities that two footballers P and Q will score a penalty kick are ¼ and 2/5 respectively. If P and Q take a penalty once, find the probability that: (i) both will score (ii) both will miss (iii) only one of them with score
2a. The fourth and ninth terms of an A P are -3 and 12 respectively. Find the (i) fifth term (ii) number of terms which will give a sum of 135
2b. Given that x = 3 1 4
0 -1 2 , find /x/
-2 0 5
2c. Solve the inequality: 2/5 (x – 2) -1/6 (x + 5 ) ≤ 0
PART B
3a. A point P is 4okm away from Q and on a bearing o330. Another pond R is 65km from Q and on a bearing of 1250. Calculate, correct to the nearest whole number the
- distance between P and R ;
- bearing of R from R
3b. A bag contains 5 white and 3 red identical balls. Two balls are drawn at random, one after the other without replacement find the probability of drawing ball of the same colour
4a. If y = 4x3 – 3x2 + 6x – 1, find from 1st principle dy/dx
4b. If A = 3 -2 , find /x-1/
1 -4
5a. The diagram below shows a frustum which is part of a solid cone. The radius of the top and bottom are 6cm and 8cm respectively. Calculate the:
- the height of the whole cone
- Area of the frustum correct to the nearest whole number. (take π = 3.142)
6cm
10cm
8cm
5b. Two fair dice are thrown together
- show sample space of the outcome;
- find the probability of getting a total sum of five or eight
- what is the probability of getting two prime number?
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020 SESSION
SUBJECT; FINANCIAL ACCOUNT CLASS: SS 2 TIME : 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The balance of the provision for depreciation account is shown in the (a) trial balance as a debit (b) trial balance as a credit (c) balance sheet as a current assets
- Outstanding rent of N300 is paid by the proprietor, the office on the balance sheet is that (a) both the liability are increased (b) both the liability are increased. (c) liability is increase while the asset is decreased (d) liability is decreased while the asset is increased (e) both liability and assets remains unchanged.
- When a buyer returns damaged goods to the seller, the buyer received a (a) profoma invoice (b) credit note (c) debit note (d) consignment note
- Trade discount is (a) allowance for prompt payment (b) allowance for damaged goods (c) allowance of price list (d) discount on creditors (e) discount on debtors.
- Which of the following is not true of capital expenditure? (i) assets required for the purpose of earning income (ii) extention of office building (iii) it is incurred and its full benefits consumed one period of account (a) I only (b) ii only (c) I and ii only (d) ii and iii only (e) iii only
Use the following information to answer questions 6-12 manufacturing and trading account N N
Opening raw materials 10,000 Manufacturing cost 114,000
Purchases 60,000 70,000
Less opening stock 8000
62,000
Direct labour 20,000
Direct expenses 20,000
Factory over head 2,000
114,000 114,000
Stock b/d 10,000 Sales x
Purchases Less sales returns 5,000
Stock c/d 12,000
Gross profit of 20% on sales x x
- What is total of raw materials consumed? (a) N144,00 (b) N114,000 (c) N 70,000 (d) N62,000 (e) N360,000
- What is the prime cost? (a) N62,000 (b) N70,000 (c) 78,000 (d) 102,000 (e) 114,000
- What is the factory cost of production? (a) N114,000 (b) 102,00 (c) 78,000 (d) 62,000 (e) N60,000
- What is the cost of finished goods purchased? (a) N60,000 (b) N50,000 (c) N40,000 (d) 30,000 (e) 20,000
- What is the net sales for the period? (a) N175,000 (b) N170,000 (c) 165,000 (d) 132,000 (e) 114,000
- What is the average cost of goods? (a) N8,000 (b) N9,000 (c) 10,000 (d) 11,000 (e) 12,000
- What is the gross profit? (a) N33,500 (b) 28,800 (c) 28,500 (d) 26,400 (e) N22,800
- Rent payable of account is an example of a (a) (a) nominal account (b) real account (c) personal account (d) private account
- A provision is (a) is an amount set out for profit for other uses (b) an amount of loss from trading activities (c) an expenses of business to be paid for in cash (d) A loss in value of all business assets
- The term bad debts is used to describe (a) a debt that can not be received (b) a debt is long over due (c) an over charge on debtor’s account (d) a debt owned by former employee.
Use the following information to answer questions 16-19
N
Land and building 20,000
Stock 5,000
Cash in hand 1,000
Profit and loss b/f 14,000
Rent owing 400
Creditors 11,000
Furniture and filleting 7,500
Motor vehicles 12,500
Debtors 13,750
Bank overdraft 8,750
- The valve of current liabilities is (a) N32,750 (b) 20,150 (c) 19,750 (d) 11,000
- The value of current assets is (a) N28,500 (b) 20,150 (c) 19,750 (d) 17,000
- The opening capital is (a) N32,000 (b) 26,000 (c) 25,600 (d) 14,000
- The value of fixed assets is (a) N57,300 (b) N47,500 (c) 40,000 (d) 37,500
- Partner’s interest on capital is shown in the (a) profit and loss account (b) partners fixed capital account (c) profit and loss appropriation account (d) trading profit and loss account
PART B: Theory-Answer 4 questions only
1. The following balance were extracted from the books of Jennifer for the year ended 31st Dec. 1990
Sales: N N
Department A 52,000
Department B 68,000
Department C 30,000 150,000
Purchases:
Department A 30,000
Department B 45,000
Department C 25,000 100,000
Insurance 800
Commission paid 3,500
Rent and rates 2,460
Delivery expenses 700
Administration expenses 4,560
Discount received 770
Salaries 18,800
Advertising 1,210
Depreciation 2,100
Opening stock:
Department A 7,000
Department B 12,000
Department C 3,000 22,000
Closing stock:
Department A 10,500
Department B 15,000
Department C 5,000 30,500
Additional information:
Expenses are to be apportion on the following basis:
a. Salaries, depreciation, rent and rates, administration expenses-equally
b. Discount received-purchases
c. Advertising, commission and delivery expenses –sales
d. Insurance rate-ratio 5:3:2 to A, B and C respectively
you are required to prepare departmental, trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31st Dec. 1990.
2. The following balance were extracted from the books of Belly enterprises on 31st Dec. 1998
N
Freehold property 50,000
Capital 81,445
Trade debtors 28,750
Trade creditors 26,150
Furniture and fittings (cost N22,500) 16,250
Rent 950
Electricity 675
Provision for bad debt (i/1/98) 288
Office equipment (cost 20,000) 15,500
Stock (i/1/98) 7,750
General expenses 2.350
Rates 625
Cash in hand 137
Bank overdraft 4,475
Bank charges 375
Purchases 60,750
Sales 74,000
Carriage inwards 395
Salaries 1,700
Discount allowed 485
Discount received 332
Additional information: (a) closing stock N6635 (b) salaries in arrears N875 (c) prepaid expenses: rent N150, rates N138 (d) provision for bad debts to be reduced to N225 (e) all fix assests are to be depreciated at 5% on cost. You are required to prepare a: (i) trial balance as at 31st Dec. 1998, and (ii) Trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31st Dec.1999.
3. The following balance were extracted from the books of Ratau industry for the year ended 31st Dec. 1995.
N
Raw materials purchased 100,000
Direct wages 40,000
Carriage on raw materials 2,600
Carriage on finished goods 3,400
Sales 250,000
Factory expenses 12,000
Insurance 8,000
Rent 20,000
Printing 900
Discount allowed 260
Returns outward (raw materials) 3,920
Returns inward 2,760
Provision for bad debts 760
Bad debts written off 1,570
Salaries 10,000
Additional information:
a. stock 1/1/95 31/12/95
raw materials 12,000 8,000
work in progress 15,000 6,000
Finished goods 6,000 4,700
b. 75% of rent and insurance expenses are chargeable to manufacturing account
c. Plant and machinery were valued at N80,000 on 1/1/95 N5,000 is to be provided for its depreciation for the year
You are required to prepare: (i) manufacturing account (ii) trading profit and loss account for the year ended 31st Dec. 1995.
4. Ashiru is in the brick-making business and on 2/1/89 he had the following assets and liabilities
Assets N
Delivery van 42,000
Brick-making machine 18,000
Debtor 7,000
Bank 10,000
Stock 1,500
Liabilities
Creditors for expenses 300
He does not keep proper books of accounts but the following records are available for the year ended 31/12/89
Balance 2/1/89 N10, 000
Receipts from debtors 4,500
14,500
Less payments
Materials for bricks-making 5,200
Repairs of van 12,000
Telephone 500
Creditors for expenses 300
9,200
Balance 31/12/89 7,300
On 31/12/68, debtors were owing N15,000 and closing stock
was valued N500. The following additional
information was available (a) provision for depreciation: Delivery van N1, 000,
brick-making machine N1800 (b) Accrued
telephone expenses N100 (c) provision for doubtful debts N350 . Prepare : (i)
statement of affairs at 2/1/89 (ii) trading, profit and loss account for the
year ended 31/12/89 (iii) Balance sheet as at that date
5. Below is a summary of the receipt and payments of unity club for the year ended 31st Dec. 1995
N
Balance 01/1/95 48,310
Proceeds from dance 36,150
Transfer to bank deposit 120,000
Rates 10,000
Wages paid 72,3000
Entrance fees received 5,000
Subscription received 300,000
Equipment bought 40,000
Repairs 16,172
General expenses 48,896
Stationery bought 9,790
Interest received on bank deposit 12,000
Donation received 4,200
Additional information (a) wages of N4,800 were due and unpaid at 31st December 1995 (b) Rates prepared amounted to N2,000 (c) general expenses include N3,000 owing since the previous year. (d) of the subscriptions received N8,000 was in arrears the previous year while N20,000 was paid in advance for the coming year. In addition N12,000 was still owing at 31st December, 1995 (e) the club had the following properties on 1st January 1995.
N
Club house 960,000
Equipments 600,000
Bank deposit 400,000
(f) Depreciate club house by 5% and equipment including additions within the year by 10%.
You are required to prepare: (i) receipt and payment account for the year ended 31st December 1995 (ii) Income and expenditure account for the year ended 31st December 1995 (iii) Balance sheet as at that date.
6. Ogun and Dapo are in partnership sharing profit and loss in the ratio 3:2. the following is the trial balance as at 31st December 1995
Trial balance Dr Cr
N N
Capital: Ogun 100,000
Dapo 50,000
Drawings: Ogun 6,000
Dapo 5,000
Purchases 12,000
Sales 20,000
Sales returns 4,000
Purchases returns 2,000
Stock 1st Jan 1995 10,000
Carriage inwards 1,200
Salaries and wages 15,000
Bad debts 1,000
Office expenses 2,400
Loan – Okafor 14,000
Provision for doubtful debts 300
Discount allowed 1,150
Discount received 1,100
Building at cost 30,000
Machinery at cost 109,100
Cash at bank 8,000
Motor van at cost 50,000
Electricity 50
Provision for depreciation motor van 10,000
Debtor s 20,000
Creditors 10,000
Bills payable 9,000
Bills Receivable 17,500
Current account balance : Ogun 1,500
Dapo 1,000
400,900 400,900
Additional information: (a) stock at close N15,000 (b) electricity prepaid N20 (c) interest on drawings 5% (d) partnership salary Ogun N2,000 (e) salaries and wages accrued N1,000 (f) interest on capital at 10% (g) depreciation motor van 10% (h) provision for bad debt is to be reduced to N200 (i) Ogun withdrawn goods for his own use N7,000
You are require to : (a) prepare to trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 31st December, 1995 (b) Partners capital account (c) balance sheet as at 31st December, 1995.
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: FURTHER MATHS CLASS: SS 1 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- An arc subtend as angle of 500 at the centre of circle of radius 6cm. calculate the area of the sector formed [take π = 22/7] (a) 90/7cm2 (b) 100/7cm2 (c) 110/7cm2 (d) 80/7cm2
- Find the distance between the point (1/2 , ½ )and (-1/2, –1/2 ) (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 3
- 8cm 600
Q R
If the area of PQR above is 12 3cm2. Find the value of q (a) 6cm (b) 7cm (c) 8cm (d) 5cm
Use the table below to answer question
Marks 1 2 3 4 5
Frequencies 2 2 8 4 4
Use the table above shows the marks obtained in a given test.
4. How many students took the test? (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 20 (d) 13
5. Find the mean mark (a) 3.2 (b) 3.1 (c) 3.0 (d) 3.3
6. Find the gradient of the linear passing through the point P(1, 1) and Q (2, 5) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2
(d) 5
7. Find the mid point of the line joining P(-3, 5) and Q(5, 3) (a) (4, -4) (b) 4, 4) (c) ( 2, 2) (d) (1, 1)
8. What velocity must be added to a velocity of 3mls due east. To produce a velocity of 4mls due south (a0 5mls N.E (b) 5mls S.W (c) 5mls N.W (d) 5mls S.E
9. Resolve 4x- 17 into partial fraction (a) 2 + 3 (b) 3 – 2
(x + 4) (2x – 3) x + 4 (2x – 3) (x + 4) (2x – 3)
(c) 2 – 3 (d) 3 + 2
(x + 4) (2x -3) (x + 4) (2x – 3)
10. Marks 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
No of student 3 1 5 2 4 2 3
From the table, if the pars mark is 5, how many students failed the test? (a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 9
SECTION B : Theory – answer 3 questions only
1. Resolve x2 + 2x – 3 into partial fractions.
(x + 4) ( x – 7)(x + 1)
2. Use the table below to draw
Wages No. of employees
Rent 60
Food 80
Transport 20
Clothes 40
Saving 100
(i) pie chart (ii) bar chart (iii) histogram (v) frequency polygon (v) cumulative frequency curve
3 The following table shows the distribution of weekly wages earned by by a number of employees of Mar-yola College in Lagos.
| Wages | No of employees |
| 40- 49 | 4 |
| 50 – 59 | 12 |
| 60 -69 | 18 |
| 70 – 79 | 11 |
| 80 – 89 | 7 |
| 90 – 99 | 5 |
| 100-109 | 2 |
| 110 -119 | 1 |
Using the assumed mean N74/50,
calculate the mean of the distribution
4 Resolve a velocity of 10mls into two perpendicular components such that
Y A
10mls
Ɵ
O X
(i) The components are equal
(ii) One components is twice the other
5. (a) Find the modulus of the resultant of the velocities 9mls and 7mls inclined at an angle of 600
(b) Find the distance between the following pairs of points
(i) P (5, -8) and Q (-4, -2)
(ii) C (-1, 3) and D (2, -7)
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT: FURTHER MATHS CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- Given that P 2 – 1 and Q 1 -3 , Find QP – PQ (a) -8 -1 (b) -12 -7 (c) -12 -1
4 3 0 -3 -8 -11 -16 12 -16 -12
(d) -9 -20
-16 -12
- If P = 1 0 -1 3 4 5 , then /P/ is (a) -8 (b) 0 (c) 4 (d) 8 -1 0 1
- If three unbiased coins one tossed, find the probability that they are all heads (a) 1/8 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/9
- Evaluate 2 0 5 (a) -42 (b) 18 (c) 102 (d) -102
4 6 3
8 9 1
- Find, in M the total distance covered by the particle below (A) 90 (b) 60 (c) 45 (d) 35
V(mls)
5
4 10 12 +(s)
- How long does it take for a particle to increase from 8mls to 10mls in 80m (a) 10s (b) 1/9s (c)
8/9s (d) 6s
- Given that P = -1 3 , Q = -2 -1 , find (3Q – 2p), (a) -4 -5 (b) -4 -9 (c) 5/3 -4/7
0 0 -1 1 -1 1 -3 3 1/3 -1/
(d) 5/7 -4/7
1/7 -1/7
- A stone is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 10mls. Find the matrix attained by the stone [take g = 10mls2] (a) 0.5m (b) 5.6m (c) 10.0m (d) 5.0m
2
- Evaluate (x3 + x2) dx ( a) 25/6 (b) 45/6 (c) 62/3 (d) 15/6
0
- Evaluate 3 (x3 – 1)dx (a) 6 2/3 (b) -6 2/3 (c) -2/3 (d) 2/3
SECTION B: theory –Answer 5 questions only
1.
| x | 75 | 35 | 40 | 55 | 15 | 20 | 10 |
| y | 80 | 45 | 40 | 60 | 30 | 25 | 10 |
from the above diagram find
- The regression line equation y = ax + b
- the correlation coefficient r
- rank correlation r1
2a. (i) A box contains 8 white, 7 red, 3 blue bath if 3 balls one drawn at random from the box. calculate the probability that:
(a) Two are red and one is blue
(b) At least two are white
(c) One of each colour drawn
(ii) A box contains 16 balls which are identical except for colour. 7 are yellow, 6 are violet and the rest are green, 6 balls are drawn at random with replacement. find the probability that
- the balls drawn are of the same colour
- only the first four are yellow
- the first three are green, the next two are yellow and the sixth are violet
.
3. Evaluate (i) 2 (x + 1) (x2 – 2x + 2)dx
X2
1
4
A = 1 1 1 ,and B = 1 -7 -5 , Find (i) AB
1 -2 3 -7 5 2 (ii) /A/
1 3 -4 -5 2 3 (iii) /B/
(iv) BA
5. A particle is projected with an initial velocity of 42m/s at an angle 400 to the vertical after 2 second. find:
(i) The vertical component of the velocity
(ii) The horizontal component of the velocity
(iii) The magnitude of the velocity
(iv) The vertical distance travelled
(v) The horizontal distanced travelled
(vi) The height (H) reached
(vii) Time taken to reach the greatest height(t)
(viii) Time of flight (T)
(ix) Range (R)
(x) Maximum range
6. If six fair coins are tossed what is the probability that at least 4 heads appears
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT; MATHEMATICS CLASS: SS 1
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions in this section
- If Cos A = 3/5 then Sin A = ? (a) 2/5 (b) 4/3 (c) 4/5 (d) 1
- What is the sum of the roots of the equation x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 (a) 1 (b) -1 (c) -3 (d) 5
- A rope 24m long is divided into three pieces in ratio 2:1:5. the length of the shortest pieces in meter is (a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 15
- Solve for m in 2m2 – 5m + 3 = 0 (a) 1 or 3/2 (b) -1 or -3/2 (c) -3/2 or 2
- Given the roots of an equation to be -5 and 4, the equation is (a) 2x2 + x – 24 (b) x2 – 2x + 20 (c) 2x2 + x – 20 (d) x2 + x – 20
- The simple interest on N250 for 8 years at 6% P.A.
is (a)
N100 (b)N120 (c)N130 (d)N140 - If 32x = 27, find x (a) 3/2 (b) 6 (c) 1 1/3 (d) 12/3
- Simplify (0.125)1/3 (a) ½ (b) 2 (c) -1/3 (d) 3
- The logarithm of 3.746 is (a) 0.5736 (b) 1.5736 (c) 1.5736 (d) 2.5736
- Evaluate x, if 45:72 = 40:x (a) 48 (b) 64 (c) 81 (d) 37
- Express 40 as a percentage of 200 (a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 40% (d) 20%
- What is the value of P2q – q2p if P = 3, q =-1? (a) -12 (b) 12 (c) -6 (d) 8
- Factorizes the expression 2e2 – 3c + 1 (a) (e + 1)(2c + 1) (b) (2c – 1)(e – 1) (c) (1 – 2c) (e + 1) (d) (e – 1)(e + 1)
- What must be added to x2 – 3x to make it a perfect square?(a) 9/2 (b) 6 (c) 9/4 (d) 9
- Solve the equation 0.2x = 1/25 (a) -5 (b) -2 (c) 2 (d) 5
- Simplify √147 – √75 + √12, leaving your answer in surd form (a)14√3 (b)3 √3 (c)4 √3 (d)28 √3
- solve the following simultaneous equations: 2x + 3y = 7, x + 5y= 0 (a) x = 1/5, y = -1(b)x = -1/5, y = 1 (c) x = 5, y = -1 (d) x = -5, y = -1
- In the diagram below, find the value of XY, correct to one decimal place
360 13cm
- 7.6cm (b) 9.4cm (c) 10.5cm (d) 16.1cm
Y Z
- If ( ¼ )(2-y) = 1, find y (a) -2 (b) -1/2 (c) ½ (d) 2
- If (3y – 4 ) is one of the factors of 6y2 – 11y + 4, find the other factors (a) ((3y – 1) (b) (2y – 1) (c) ( 1 + 3y) (d) (2y – 3)
PART 2: THEORY
Instruction: Answer all questions in part A and any two questions in part B
PART A
- Calculate the total surface area and the volume of the shape below.
2a. The angle of elevation of the top of a flag pole is 640 from a point 32m away from the post of the flag pole. Find the angle of elevation of a flag half-way up the flag pole from the point correct to the nearest degree
2b. Solve 3x2 – 6x – 9 = 0, by completing the square
PART B
3a. construct a triangle XYZ such that /XY/=7cm and /YZ/=10cm and angle <YXZ = 1050 . draw a circle to pass through the vertices of the triangleXYZ. Find the radius of the circle
4a. Out of 30 candidates applying for a post, 17 have degrees,, 15 diplomas, and 4 neither degree nor diploma.
- Draw a ven diagram to illustrate this piece of information
- How many of them have both?
4b. Find the quadratic equations whose roots are -5/4 and 2/3
5. The marks scored by 50 students in mathematics examinations are as follows:
60 54 40 67 53 73 37 55 62 43
44 69 39 32 45 58 48 67 39 51
46 59 40 52 61 49 23 60 59 47
65 58 74 47 40 59 68 51 50 50
71 51 26 36 38 70 46 40 51 42
(a) Using class intervals 21-30, 31-49,…….., prepare a frequency distribution table.
(b) Calculate the mean mark of the distribution
(c) What percentage of the students scored more than 60
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/ 2020
SUBJECT; MATHEMATICS CLASS: SS 2
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions in this section
- If Sin Ɵ = 3/5, find tan Ɵ (a) ¾ (b) 3/5 (c) 2/5 (d) ¼
- Find the value of Sin 450 – Cos 300 (a) 2 +√6 (b) √2 + √3 (c) √2 + √3 (d) √2 – √3
4 4 2 2
- A cylindrical pipe 50m long with radius 7m has one end opened what is the total surface area of the pipe? (a) 700πm2 (b) 350πm2 (c) 98πm2 (d) 749π2
- Find the distance between the points ( ½, ½ ) and (-1/2 -1/2) (a) √2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) √3
- If cos Ɵ = 8/15, where is an acute , find sin Ɵ (a) 13/15 (b) 8/17 (c) 15/17 (d) 16/17
- Find the equation of a line parallel to y = -4x + 2 through (2, 3) (a) y -4x + 11= 0 (b) y + 4x – 11 = 0 (c) y + 4x + 11 = 0 (d) y – 4x – 11 = 0
- If y = (2x + 1)3, find dy/dx. (a) 3(2x + 1)2 (b) 6(2x + 1)2 (c) 3(2x + 1) (d) 6(2 + 1)
- If P = 2 -3 What is P-1?(a)1/5 3/5 (b) -1/5 3/5 (c) 1/5 3/5 (d) -1/5 -3/5
1 1 1/5 2/5 -1/5 2/5 -1/5 2/5 -1/5 -2/5
- Solve the inequalities -6 ≤ 4 – 2x < 5 –x (a) -1≤ x < 6 (b) -1 < x < 5 (c) -1< x ≤ 5 (d) -1 ≤ x < 6
- Find the sum to infinity of the following series 0.5 + 0.05 + 0.005 + 0.0005 + …… (a) 5/9 (b) 5/8 (c) 5/7 (d) 1
- The 3rd term of an A.P is -9 an the 7th term is -29. Find the 10th term (a) 44 (b) -44 (c) -165 (d) 165
- A student measures a piece of rope and found that it was 1.26m long. If the actual length of the rope was 1.2m, what was the percentage error in measurement? (a) 0.40% (b) 0.25% (c) 0.01% (d) 0.80%
- Simplify (3/4 of 4/9 ÷ 9½ ) ÷ 15/19 (a) 1/25 (b) 1/36 (c) 1/5 (d) ¼
- Evaluate (81/16)-1/4 x 2-1 (a) 1/3 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 1/6
- Rationalize 2 √3 + √5 (a) 3 √15 + 11 (b)3√15 – 11 (c) 3√15 -11 (d) 3√15 + 11
√2 – √3 2 2
- Express the product of 0.21 and 0.34 in standard form (a) 7.14 x 10-3 (b) 7.14 x 10-2 (c) 7.14 x 10-1 (d) 7.14 x 10-4
- In a survey of 50 news paper readers, 40 read champion and 30 reads Guardian, how many read both paper? (a) 15 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 20
- Solve for x and y if x – y = 2 and x2 – y2 = 8 (a) (1, 3) (b) (-1, 3) (c) (3, 1) (d) (-3, 1)
- If y varies directly as the square root of x and y = 3, when x = 16. Calculate y when x = 64 (a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 3
- If x is inversely proportion to y and x = 2½ when y = 2, find x if y = 4 (a) 2¼ (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 1¼
PART 2
Instruction: Answer all questions in part A and any two question part B
1a If 21-y x 2y-1= 82-3y, find y
2y+ 2
1b. A rope 60cm long is made to form a rectangle. If the length is four times it’s breadth, calculate correct to 1.d.p the (i) length (ii) diagonal of the rectangle
1c. The probabilities that two footballers P and Q will score a penalty kick are ¼ and 2/5 respectively. If each P and Q takes is penalty once, find the probability that: (i) both will score (ii) both will miss (iii) only one of them with score
2a. The fourth and ninth terms of an A P are -3 and 12 respectively. Find the (i) fifth term (ii) number of terms which will give a sum of 135
2b. Given that x = 3 1 4
0 -1 2 , find /x/
-2 0 5
2c. Solve the inequality: 2/5 (x – 2) -1/6 (x + 5 ) ≤ 0
PART B
3a. A point P is 4okm away from Q and on a bearing o330. Another pond R is 65km from Q and on a bearing of 1250. Calculate, correct to the nearest whole number the
- distance between P and R ;
- bearing of R from R
3b. A bag contains 5 white and 3 red identical balls. Two balls are drawn at random, one after the other without replacement find the probability of drawing ball of the same colour
4a. If y = 4x3 – 3x2 + 6x – 1, find from 1st principle dy/dx
4b. If A = 3 -2 , find /x-1/
1 -4
5a. The diagram below shows a frustum which is part of a solid cone. The radius of the top and bottom are 6cm and 8cm respectively. Calculate the :
- the height of the whole cone
- Area of the frustum correct to the nearest whole number. (take π = 3.142)
6cm
10cm
8cm
5b. Two fair dice are thrown together
- show sample space of the outcome;
- find the probability of getting a total sum of five or eight
- what is the probability of getting two prime number?
EDUDELIGHT GROUP OF SCHOOLS.
3RD TERM EXAMINATION 2019/2020 SESSION
SUBJECT; FINANCIAL ACCOUNT CLASS: SS 1 TIME : 1 ½ hrs
SECTION A: OBJECTIVES- Answer all questions
- The sales accounts is written from (a) cash sales to customers only (b) credit sales to customer only (c) credit sales less cash sales (d) cash sales less cash discount (e) both credit and cash sales
- Which of the following may have been recorded in the cash book and fail to appear in the bank statement? (a) bank charges and commission (b) cheque issued (c) bank lodgments (d) payment made by the bank on standing order (e) opening bank overdraft
- Which of the following accounts belongs to the personal ledger? (a) purchases account (b) capital account (c) merchant account (d) depreciation account (e) V. Okafor’s account
- A sales of N2570 was recorded in the day book as N2750 the error committed was (a) compensating error (b) error of omission (c) error of original entry (c) error of transportation
- The drawings account of a sole proprietor is transferred to the (a) capital account (b) debit side of trading account (c) credit side of profit and loss account (d) current liabilities in the balance sheet (e) current assets in the balance sheet
- Which of the following shows the stock at start of an accounting period? (a) appropriation account (b) current assets in the balance sheet (c ) current liabilities in the balance sheet (d) trading account (e) profit and loss account
- Discount allowed would appear on the (a) fixed asset in the balance sheet (b) debit side of trading account (c) long term liabilities in the balance sheet (d) debit side of profit and loss account (e) personal ledger account
- The concept of double entry book-keeping states that (a) if you receive goods on credit, the seller becomes your creditor (b)for every
- debit entry there must be corresponding credit entry (c) come party receives and another party gives (d) purchases and sales are stated separately (e) for every seller there is a buyer
- Pending the location of error, the differences disclosed in the trial balance is normally posted to (a) an adjustment account (b) a control account (c) a suspense account (d) a profit and loss account (e) a trading account
- A fixed amount of money set aside for petty expenses is (a) imprest (b) float (c) receipt (d) fund
- Carriage inward expenses of a business is treated in (a) trading account (b) balance sheet (c) appropriation account (d) profit and loss account
- A deduction from the sales price of goods that is allowed if payment is made within a specified period of time is (a) trade discount (b) cash discount (c) quantity discount (d) rebate
- The total of purchases day book is posted to the purchases account in the (a) purchases ledger (b) general ledger (c) private ledger (d) normal ledger
- Which of the following error affects the trial balance? (a) commission (b) omission (c) principle (d) single entry
- The sources document sent by the seller to the buyer when goods are returned is (a) credit note (b) purchases invoice (c) sales invoice (d) debit note
- Which of the following does not belong to the group? (a) proprietor of a business (b) an entrepreneur (c) an investor (d) a debtor
- Which of the following is not a liability? (a) accrued wages (b) rent arrear (c) prepayment (d) insurance due
- The balance of the provision for depreciation account is shown in the (a) trial balance as a debit (b) trial balance as a credit (c) balance sheet as a fixed asset (d) balance sheet as a current liabilities
- A trader set aside from his
private fund N1500 for business purpose the
N1500 would be referred to as (a) capital (b) loan (c) reserve (d) drawing
- The bank column in the cash
shows a credit balance of
N160. this means (a) a total payment ofN180 (b) a gross receipt ofN180 (c) an overdraft ofN180 (d) a left over ofN180 cash.
PART B: Theory-Answer 4 questions only
1. The bank column of Ojo cash book for the month of August 1997? Appear as follow
Dr Cr
1995 N 1997 N
August 6; Sago 540 Aug; 1 balance b/f 3030
Augus 22 Abacha 980 Aug. 3; Obe 320
Aug. 30; Boga 595 Aug. 17; Sanjo 770
Aug. 31; Bal c/f 2390 Aug. 30; Chima 385
4505 4505
Bank statement Dr Cr Bal
1995.
N N N
Aug. 1; Balance 3030 ODAug. 6; Sogo 540 2490 ODAug. 11; Obe 320 2810 OD
Aug. 22; Abacha 980 1830 OD Aug. 23; Sanjo 770 2600 OD Aug. 28; Credit transfers 1025 1575 OD Aug. 30; Bank charges 150 1725 OD Aug. 31; Standing ord 285 2010 OD
You are required to use the above information to prepare bank reconciliation statement account
2. Show the journal entries necessary to correct the following errors when found
a. Both purchases and return outwards account were under cast by N150
b. Payment of cash to Seun N30 was completely omitted from the books
c. Cash paid to Sanni N 1000 entered on the credit side at his account and debited to cash account
d. Returns inwards N300 from Ototu was entered in Otus account
e. Sales to Ayomide N107 were entered in the as N701
3. From the following trial balance of Ajayi draw up a trading profit and loss account and balance sheet for the year ended 31st December 1996
Trial balance Dr Cr
Capital 22,636
Stock 2368
Carriage outwards 200
Carriage inwards 310
Returns inwards 205
Sales 18,600
Purchases 11,874
Returns outwards 322
Salaries and wages 3,862
Rent 304
Insurance 78
Sundry Expenses 664
Advertising 216
General expenses 480
Land and building 5,000
Furniture and fitting 1,800
Motor car 350
Debtors 3,896
Bank 10,482
Creditors 1731
Drawings 1,200 43,289 43,289
4. On 30th December 1990 Okocha’s cash book showed a debit balance of N14, 760. His bank statement showed a balance of N13,250. The reasons for the difference were as follows:
a. A cheque N980 was received and entered in the cash book but was not recorded in the bank statement
b. Un-presented cheque totaling N1,870
c. The payment side of the cash book had been undercast by N1000
d. standing order N630 had not been entered in the cash book
e. A bill of exchange of N670 had matured and the bank had paid his behalf but it had not be
recorded in his cash book
f. Dividends credited to his account by the bank N670 had not been recorded in the cash book
g. a payment of N720 by Okafor had been charged in error to Okafor’s account by the bank.
i. You are required
5. The following errors were from the books of Biodun.
a. A sales of fittings N100 had being entered in the sales account
b. Purchases of motor car N400 had been entered in error in the motor expenses in error in the motor expenses account
c. Purchases of goods from Biodun N76 was entered in the accounts as N67
d. Discount allowed of N50 the debit sides of discount
received
e. A receipt of cash from Ayo N150 had been entered on the credit of cash account and the debit side of Ayo’s account.
- The cost of a machine is
N10, 000. The residual value isN4, 000. it is expected to last for years uses the straight line method to prepare the depreciation schedule.





