JSS3 MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS

1 hours read

MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR JSS3 – Edudelight.com

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: ENGLISH STUDIES Duration: 1 ½ HRS Class: JSS 3

SECTION: A

COMPREHENSION

PASSAGE 1

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by choosing the most appropriate of the options lettered A-E.

There was once a terrible famine in the land of the animals. Food and money were scarce. Hunger made all the creatures very weak.

The mother of Dino, the tortoise, fell ill and was at the point of death.

Dinso became very worried because he had no money for her funeral ceremonies. He thought and thought but did not know what to do.

At last, he discovered a trick. He assembled all the animals and said to them, ‘I am going to a distant land in search of food for all of us who are hungry, do not send for me unless something unusual happens.’ The animals agreed.

Three days later, Dinso’s mother died. Death is not unusual and Dinso could not be sent for. Discovering the trick, the elephant advised, ‘Let’s tell Dinso that the plam tree bears fruits at the end of its leaves. This unusual and should make him return quickly.’

The other animals welcomed the idea, thanked the elephant for the good advice and sent for Dinso. On hearing of palm trees bearing fruits at the end of the leaves, he hastened back. When he arrived, the animals said to him, ‘Your mother is dead; now arrange for her funeral according to our custom. You can’t deceive all the people all the time.’

1 By giving the advice he gave, there is no doubt that the elephant was a …… animal. a.cunning b. great c. smart d. thoughtful e. wise

2. The passage is mainly ….. in form. a. argumentative b. descriptive c. expository

d. narrative e. persuasive

3. A word that can replace ‘assembled’ as it is used in the passage is …..

a. arranged b. combined c. gathered d. grouped e. invited

4. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

a. Dinso knew his mother would not die soon b. Dinso was never confused about what to do

c. Hunger made Dinso’s mothe fall ill d. The famine did not affect some animals

e. The passage is a riddle

5. The most suitable title for the passage could be ….. a. Dinso the Elephant

b. Dinso’s Mother’s Death c. Dinso’s Trick

PASSAGE II

Until the later half of the nineteenth century, the Europeans knew little about the interior of Africa. By then, much had been learnt about America, Asia and Australia. Because the Europeans knew little about Africa then, this was the chief reason why Stanley, the British explorer, called Africa ‘The Dark Continent’.

Stanley explored the Congo Basin. The Stanley Falls on this river is called after his name. most of the inhabitants of Africa are black in complexion and perhaps this was the second reason the words Dark-Continent were applied to Africa.

One may ask why the inland part of Africa was unknown until about one hundred years ago. Many are of the opinion that this was because the natives of Africa were not friendly towards Europeans. Until then, Arab slave raiders had been enslaving Africans. This made many negroes look upon all whit people as slave dealers.

But we must not forget the difficulties in exploring Africa. The Sahara Desert, the rapids on rivers and the thick forest made travelling very difficult. The damp, heat, mosquitoes and tse-tse flies caused illness to European explorers

6. What fo many people think was the reason why Africa was unknown for a long

time? a. The Arab slave raiders were wicked b. The Arabs enslaved many Africans.

c. Explorers were too busy in other continents d. The natives were unfriendly to the Europeans

e. The Sahara Desert was too big to cross

7. The … was explored by Stanley a. African coast b. Congo Basin

c. Forested part of Africa d. Interior of Africa e. Stanley Falls

8. What caused ill-health to European explorers? a. Snake bites and malaria

b. The climate and insects c. The dangerous rivers and deserts

d. The rapids on African rivers. e. The slave raiders’ unfriendliness

9. Who called Africa the Dark Continent? a. Europeans b. Explorers

c. Stanley d. The Americans e. The British

10. A word that can replace ‘natives’ as it is used in the passage is ……

a. indigenes b. leaders c. traders d. visitors e. warriors

Complete each of the following questions with the most appropriate of the options lettered A-E

11. Don’t argue with your mother, it is a sign of …… a. disrespect

b. irrespect c. misrespect d. nonrespesct e. unrespect

12. Crude oil is sold to other countries in containers called …….. a. barrels

b. bottles c. drums d. jars e. tanks

13. The warder denied seeing the …. of the prison before they escaped.

a. contingents b. inmates c. partners d. people e. prisoners

14. The meeting had to be …… because of lack of quorum a. adjourned

b. convened c. organized d. postponed e. suspended

15. He could not make a withdrawal because his cheque …….. a. bounced

b. had expired c. was authorized d. was cleared e. was open

16. Cholera is the most dreadful …… I know. a. attack b. danger c. disease d. disturbances e. sickness

17. Avian influenza (Bird Flu) is a/an disease. a. dangerous b. infected c. infectious d. relapsing e. water-borne

18. A 10% ….. was given to my friend when he bought a radio set a. balance

b. bonanza c. change c. cost d. discount

19. My cousin is the son of my …….a. brother b. nephew c. sister d. step brother e. uncle

20. The doctor admitted that the patient’s condition was so ……. That he might not

survive. a. critical b. disturbing c. feverish d. pathetic e. pitiable

21. There were many mistakes in the newspaper reports because the ……. Had not

been carefully edited. a. articles b. captions c. columns d. drafts e. jottings

22. The radiator in a car engine contains a. brake fluid b. engine oil

c. fuel d. hydraulic fluid e. water

23. After the hearing, the accused …… not guilty. a. appealed b. argued c. claimed d. pleaded

e. protested

24. In a democratic government, the governor is normally a. appointed b. chosen c. elected

d. nominated e. selected

25. Before a judge passes his final judgement the lawyer is free to plead for his ….

a. client b. customer c. plaintiff d. prosecutor e. witness

Complete each of the following questions with the most appropriate of the options lettered A-E

26. ‘Did you pass the exam?’ is best reported as He asked him whether he ….. the

exam. a. had passed b. has pass c. has passed d. was passing e. passed

27. ‘ I received the money from my sister’ is best reported as He explained that he

…… the money from his sister. a. had received b. has received

c. have received d. receives e. received

28. Mathematics is the subject I found ….. difficult a. far b. more

c. most d. much e. well

29. Adu is the ….. boy of the family. a. more taller b. most tall c. tall d. tallest e. taller

30. She sang so ……. That everybody admired her a. audibly b. fluently

c. melodiously d. solemnly e. sonorously

31. She dresses …….. my cousin. a. as b. as much as c. like d. up to e. unlike

32. He abuses me as if he …….. my father a. has been b. is c. was d. were

e. was being

33. The meeting is due to start at 8:00 O’clock and with Mr. Cole as chairman, you

can expect it to start ….. time a. by b. for c. in d. of e. on

34. The supermarket is located …… the road a. across b. at c. on d. inside e. over

35. He didn’t think it was a very good idea to set fire ……. The bush a. with

b. at c. in d. of e. on

36. I long ….. the holidays a. by b. for c. because of d. of e. towards

37. You should not be taken …… by appearances a. aback b. in c. out

d. on e. up

38. While everyone’s attention was distracted, the thief made ……. With the cash

box. a. away b. in c. on d. out e. up

39. My friend asked me to drink …… water a. a few b. a little c. few

d. many e. plenty

40. This is the house …… Jack built. a. a b. in which c. some d. that e. the

41. A struggle between opposing forces in a literary work in the a. plot

b. conflict c. climax d. denouement

42. A poem with fourteen lines of rhymed iambic pentrametre is a. an epic

b. sonnet c. a quatrain d. an octave.

43. Pick the odd item from the option listed below. a. Euphemism b. Oxymoron

c. Hyperbole d. Rhythm

44. “She waited for him for a thousand years” illustrates a. Euphemism b. Hyperbole

c. Assonance d. Ellipsis

45. A literary device which expresses meaning in its directs opposite a. metaphor

b. paradox c. parody d. irony

46. Pick the odd item out of the options listed below. a. verse b. stanza

c. Rhythm d. Dialogue

47. The genres of literature are …… a. prose, fiction and novel

b. drama, non-fiction and fiction c. prose, poetry and drama d. plays, poems and novels

48. Most poems are written in ….. a. stanzas b. rhymes c. chapters d. paragraphs

49. The dress of an actor is known as ……a. attire b. costume c. uniform d. regalia

50. “Fear gripped Bose” is an example of a. Apostrophe b. metaphor

c. personification d. hyperbole

Choose from the options lettered A-E the one that contains the given phonetic symbol.

51. /i:/ a. bird b. bitch c. dead d. teach e. tunic

52. /e / a. clerk b. heart c. leopard d. plait e. verse

53. /^/ a. actor b. blood c. burn d. school e. work

54. / / a. all b. bosom c. dawn d. flood e. wash

55. /au/ a. buy b. coke c. crown d. garbage e. tardy

56. /t/ a. chide b. graph c. kissed d. other e. then

57. /s/ a. circle b. coin c. pressure d. ratio e. sure

58. / / a. drunk b. member c. none d. normal e. snail

59. /d₃/ a. closure b. ginger c. machine d. prestige e. yam

60. /k / a. cease b. choice c. knight d. know e. physique

Mock Exam Questions for JSS3 – Edudelight.com

PART B- THEORY: SECTION A- LETTER WRITING/COMPOSITION

INSTRUCTION: Answer one (1) question from this section. Your answer should be about 300 words long.

Write a letter to your friend in another school telling him that you have changed school and giving reasons for doing so.
Write an essay on what you like to be in future

SECTION B – GRAMMAR

INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section.

1. Complete the following sentences with the correct prepositions

a. My son is very dear ……… my heart

b. The girls are suffering ……. Malaria

c. They had apologized……. Their bad behavior

d. Our enemy was forced to give ……

e. The teachers warned their students to be careful ….. their work.

Change the following sentences from Active to Passive
Ade arranges the chair
The children wrote a letter
The students have done the assignment
Olu is reading an interesting book
I am sweeping the floor

SECTION C- LITERATURE : PROSE

Answer one question each from this section.

Sound of Alcohol by Ted Osondu.

1a. Describe how Nnam’s father felt the day Nnam was born?

b. How did Nnam’s father treat his children.

c. What type of person was Nnam?

d. Mention what he hated and why?

2.What made Jab to be well know among his school mates?

b. What is the mixing of wine?

DRAMA

1i. Who is Afonja?

ii. Why did he stop the celebration?

2.”That is the whole matter, Nothing is left, I want you to be ready with your Esos.

i. who made this statement? ii. To whom?

iii. Why the statement? iv. Where is the speaker?

Mention other character present when the speaker was talking

BASIC SCIENCE MOCK ***EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: BASIC SCIENCE Duration: 2hrs Class: JSS 3

1 Light energy from the sun is called———–a. electric b. kinetic c. chemical d. solar

2. The SI unit of energy is —- a. L b. E c. J d. W

3. Which of the following is not a source of energy? a. wood b. coal c. water d. smoke

4 .Mathematical expression of power is ——————

a. Newton/Distance b. Force/Time c. Workdone/Time d. Mass/Density

5. Mathematical expression for work done by a body is represented below as ——-a. W = f x d b .W=n x t c. S= d x t d. W= m xv e .W= f X j

6. The S.I unit of power is ———— a. cm b. m/s c. m d. watts

7. The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position is called

a. potential b. Kinetic c Food d. Muscular

8. A body of mass 10Kg moves with a velocity of 6m/s, Calculate the kinetic energy of the body.a.150j b.1200j c.180j d.160j

9. What is the major source of energy? a. garden b. water c. light d. Sun

10. I f a force of 500N is applied by a car over a distance of 3 metres , calculate the workdone by the car. a. 20j b.50j c.200j d.1500j e.1200j

11. Calculate the velocity of a moving body of mass 20g if its K.E is 64J. a.50m/s b. 34m/s c.80m/s d. 24m/s

12. Calculate the power of a pump which can lift 500kg of water through a vertical height of 12m in 0.3minutes .Assuming g-9.8m/s²

a. 32.7 kilowatts b.3.27kilowatts c.327kilowatts d.3270kilowatts

13. A ball of mass 20g is placed at the height of 8cm, calculate the potential energy.(g=9.8m/s)

a. 016j b.0.16j c.1.6j d.16j.

14. Which one of the following is not the importance of honest communication about pubertal concerns to responsible parents.

a. it helps to learn more about self b. it enhances healthy relationship with family

c .it destroys self esteem d. it boosts knowledge and understanding about pubertal changes.

15. Sending and receiving information through pictures, facial expression, action and code language is ——- a. direct communication b. indirect communication c. verbal communication d.non verbal communication

16. Characteristics of good communication are these except—

a. active listening b. simple language c. eye contact d. noise making

17. Conversation fillers that must be avoided during conversation include—

a. eye contact b. body language c. write down d .putting hands into pocket

18. Which of the following is not an expression of feeling, desire and fantasies in lifetime? a. attitude development b. enjoy touch c. curiosity about gender d. no internet for opposite sex

19. Self worth can be influenced by the following factors except

a. Family b. Environment c. Mass media d. Food

20. Which of the following is not part of the biological or reproductive events in lifetime–?

a. wet dream b. male producing sperm c. Girls menstruate d. Impossible to get sexually transmitted disease/HIV.

21.The smallest indivisible particle of an element is ——-.

a. Atom b. Molecule c. Element d. Electron

22.The three fundamental particles of an atom are ——

a. Proton, neutron, electron b. Proton, nucleus, orbit c.Nucleus,proton,ion d.ion,nucleus ,election

23. The temperature at which liquid turn to solid is called ————- point.

a. Freezing point b. Cooling c. Boiling point d. Melting point

24. When solids change into liquid at appropriate temperature, the process is called ———

a. Evaporation b. Melting c. Diffusion d. Boiling

25. The process by which a gaseous matter comes back to a liquid matter is known as ———

a. Boiling b. Freezing c. Sublimation d.Vapourisation e. Condensation.

26.The boiling point of pure water is ———-

a.0^oC b.100^oC c.250^oC d.1000^oC

27. When a liquid is cooled, it ————

a. Condense b. Evaporates c. Freezes d. Melts e. Sublimes

28 .A catapult which has been pulled to its maximum elasticity is said to possess–energy. A electrical B kinetic C mechanical D motor E Potential

29 . Series of similar events that takes place throughout the length of time a person is likely to live is called …….A .life-death continuum B. birth continual C .birth control D .blood life continuum E. life span continuum.

30.Kinetic energy include the following except

a. stationary bus b. a moving car c. a falling orange d. a man running

31. Calculate the workdone when a 15Kg object was lifted through a vertical distance of 300cm.—————–

32.The two types of Mechanical energy are

33 .Calculate the kinetic energy ofan object of mass 200kg moving with a speed of 3m/s. —————–

34. If the mass of an object is 6kg, and height is 5m.Calculate the potential energy . (assuming=10m/s).————–

The two factors affecting evaporation are

35.——————

36.——————–

Conversation fillers that must be avoided during conversation are

37.———————-

38.———————-

39.———————–

40.The way a person feels about his or her physical appearance is called———

SECTION B.

Attempt only 3 three Questions from this section.

1a. Calculate the workdone when a force of 15N travels a distance of 10m.

Given that the timetaken is 15minutes , calculate the power. 5marks

b. The mass of a ball is 20g and the height is 8cm.Calculate the velocity of the ball just before it touches the ground.(g=10m/s) 5marks

2a.If the kinetic energy of a ball moving at a velocity of 10m/s is 50kj.What is the mass of the ball? 31/2marks

2b.In effective communication skills, the BRIEF acronym means:

B for———————————–

R for————————————

I for———————————— E for———————————–

F for———————————– 5marks

2c. Mention three conversation fillers that must be avoided in communication. 11/2marks

3a.State 3 factors that influences individual sense of self-worth. 3marks

3b. In tabular form, state 2 differences between Verbal and Non-verbal communication. 4marks

3c. State 3 ways of improving communication. 3marks

4a. State 5 importance of honest communication about pubertal concerns to responsible parents. 5marks

b. Mention the two types of Life Span Continuum and state two examples of each. 3marks

c. What is Communication? 2marks

5a. State 3 statements of kinetic Theory. 3marks

b. List three phenomena which supports the kinetic theory of matter. 3marks

c. Using the kinetic Theory, explain why a solid has a definite shape and liquid has none. 4marks

BASIC TECHNOLOGY MOCK ***EXAMINATION QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: BASIC TECHNOLOGY Duration: 2HRS Class: JSS 3

OBJECTIVE

1. ___________ receive the weight if the building. A) roof b) window c) doors d) foundation

2. _______________ help to distribute the weight of the building over the surface area a) floor b) foundation c) roof d) door

3. We know _____________ types of foundation a) five b) four c) three d) two

4. The pile foundation is used in constructing a) bungalow b) mini-flat c) duplex d) bridges and high rise building

5. This is used where the load bearing capacity is weak a) ceramic b) raft foundation c) clay or mud d) strip foundation

6. ________________ is a structural member in building used mainly for the enclosure or division of a space within a building a) door b) window c) walls d) foundation

7. _________________ this is used to protect the structure against weather a) door b) window c) floor d) wall

8. ___________ is the type of finishing given to the internal wall of a building a) plastering b) synthetic c) vulcanization d) later

9. ___________________ is a tool used to apply mortar ( cement and sand) to the surface of the wall a) mallet trowel c) adhesive d) abrasive

10. ___________ serves as means of Escape for its inhabitants (a) Rescue operation (b) Safely (c) door (d) Raft

11. __________ are method used to assemble and fasten two pieces of wood without nailing (a) adhesive (b) abrasive (c) joints (d) latex

12. We have __________ method of joining metals together surfaces together a) five b) four c) three d) two

13. Mechanical fastening method is a method of join surface method together(a) Temporary (b) permanent (c) Slow (d) Excavating

14. ________ is any features in timber that reduces that quality and the market value (a) Latex (b) synthetic (c) defects (d) adhesive

15. This is a mixture of two or more metals to form one (a) Alloy (b) Latex (c) Casting (d) Smelting

16. There are two basic methods of electrical circuit wiring, series circuit wiring and _____ a) rectangular circuit wiring b) close circuit wiring c) parallel wiring d) conductor wiring

17. We have two type of motion , the linear and __________ a) Rotary motion b) Fast motion c) circular motion d) rectangular motion

18. Which of the following can not be regarded as a rescue operation a) vehicle extrication b) Surface water c) Air sea rescue operation © First aiding

19. Accident in a confined space include the following except a) storage silo b) hoppers c) pit d) ground

20. One of the following cannot be used to fight large fire accident a) pure water b) fire extinguisher c) sand basket d) fire blanket

21. Which of the following can be used for drawing vertical and inclined lines? a) protractor b) scale rule c) compass d) set square

22. The drawing instrument used for drawing irregular curves is called ______ a) bow compass b) protractor c) French curves (d) Set square

23. Preventive maintenance include the following except a) Lubrication b) inspection c)adjustment d) repair

24. Voltage is measured with an instrument called _______ (a) voltmeter b) ohmmeter c) ammeter d) galvanometer

25. The preliminary work carried out to get a site ready for the erection of a building is called a) Foundation b) site preparation c) bonding d) pegging

26. A process of enlarging or reducing the size of drawing is known as a) Free hand sketch b) isometric drawing c) orthographic drawing c) scale drawing

27. Drawing paper is placed squarely on the drawing board with the aid_________ a) tee – square b) scale rule c) ruler d) hands

28. To measure and draw various angles you need a a) template b) set square c) protractor d) French curve

29. Ohm is the unit used for measuring a) resistance b) voltage c) current d) frequency

30. The type of maintenance carried out by a man who often sends his car for serving is known as________ a) correction b) predictive c) preventive d) detective

31. A regular polygon with nine sides is called ________ a) hexagon b) heptagon c) decagon d) nonagon

32. The following are methods of processing plastics except a) compression moulding b) vacuum forming c) thermosetting moulding d) injection moulding

33. Scale rules are used to produce a) reduced or enlarged size b) equal and normal size of drawing c) enlarged size of drawing only d) a good linear drawing

34. We can take care of our drawing boarding by ______ a )keeping it inside the locker b) keeping it on the floor c) washing with soap and water d) avoiding scratches on the surface

35. The purpose of maintenance in engineering equipment is to a) keep it in good working condition always b) prevent it from making loud noise c) stop it from working too long d) enable it to last for ever

36. What type of maintenance is involved when burnt fuse is replaced in an electric plug a) predictive maintenance b) detective maintenance c) correction maintenance d) Fast speed maintenance

37. The type of metal installed in our homes by (NEPA) PHCN is called a) multi meters b) voltmeter c) watt meter d) watt- hour meter

38. Which of the following is not a tool used on site preparation ? a) matchet b) hoe c) hacksaw d) axe

39. Which of the following serves as binding agent in concrete a) cement b) sand c) stone d) water

40. Which of the following is not a quadrilateral a) prism b) rhomboid c) rhombus d) parallelogram

41. Maintenance can be classified into ________ types a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 2

42. ___________ is used for reinforcing concrete a) iron b) plastic c) wood d) gravel

43. _________ is used for making block, concrete and plastering a) sand b) gravel c) concrete d) plastic

44. Which of the following is not a component of reinforce concrete a) sand b) cement c) gravel d) plastic

45. ____________ is used for planning rough wood a) fore plane b) Rip saw c) Trying plane d) Jack plane

46. ____________ is used to make holes in wood or metal a) Hack saw b) rip saw c) drill c) spoke shave

47. Hack saw is used to cut ________ a) wood b) metal c) plastic d) clothes

48. ___________ is used for determining angle at various degrees a) protractors b) steel rule c) micrometer d) steel tape

49. __________ wood are called deciduous woods a) soft wood b) wet wood c) Hard wood d) dry wood

50. ___________ are called coniferous wood is a) soft wood b) cheap wood c) wet wood d) dry wood

51. Wood can be classified into ___________ and __________ a) Hard wood and wet wood b) soft wood and wet wood c) Hard wood and soft wood d) wet and dry wood

52. ___________ is drawn at the bottom right hard corner of the drawing paper a) Boader line b) title block c) lettering d) Pencils

53. ___________ can be defined as a technical language used for describing things with the aid of drawing a) technical drawing b) drawing materials c) drawing instruments d) drawing board

54. __________ are equipment used in order to achieve safety a) safety devices b) fire extinguisher c) Fire alarm Sand bucket

55. The following are the operations performed in the workshop except a)construction b) design and fabrication c) repair d) Surgery

56. ___________ can be defined as a room or building in which in which things are made, repaired and maintained a) workshop b) sitting room c) House d) devices

57. Process and method of doing thing by hand and it I s common to under developed countries a) artificial b) physical c) manual d) potential

58. The use of donkey and horse to travel from one places to another is known as a) under developed b) technology c) artificial d)highly – developed

59. Which of the following is not a benefit of modern technology a) using of gong b) telephone c) internet d) aircraft

60. Natural resources such as oil, forest are provided by __________ a) mankind b) human c) Factory d)nature

THEORY: Answer only three question

1a Explain the function of the following building components

I Foundation

ii floor

Iii walls

Iv Door

V Roof

B Draw strip foundation

2a Define wood work joint

B sketch one of the joint use in woodwork

C Mention four methods of joining metals

D Differentiate between rendering and plastering

3a Define motion in engineering

B Differentiate between linear motion and rotary motion

C Give four examples of devices that convert linear into rotary motion in their operation

D Give four examples of devices that convert rotary into line motion in their operation

4a Draw a circuit diagram and indicate (i) resistance (ii) e.g. (iii) switch

b mention five wiring tools

c Differentiate between conduit wiring and surface wiring

d Mention five wiring materials used in house wiring

5 Sketch five workshop hand tools and explain their uses

JSS3 MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS P.H.E – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: PHYSICAL AND HEALTH EDUCATION

Duration: 2HR

Class: JSS 3

OBJECTIVES: Instruction: Answer all questions in this section

_____ is the activities engaged in during leisure hours to revitalize the body and brain. (a) Physical training (b) swimming (c) tennis (d) recreation
____________________ are physical exercise designed to improve strength, flexibility, balance, agility, co-ordination of the body. (a) Hockey (b) swimming (c) football (d) gymnastics
The decathlon consists of __________________ athletics events (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
_______________ comprises some motor skills, which build and produce particular effects on particular part of the body. (a) volley ball (b) basketball (c) football (d) gymnastics
Swimming federation of Nigeria was found in _______ year (a) 1958 (b) 1960 (c) 1950 (d) 1968
______________ is the process of keeping the pool clean and hygiene at all times. (a) buoyancy (b) floating (c) pool hygiene (d) pool showering
Which of the following skill is not applicable to swimming? (a) fosbury flop (b) front crawl (c) back stroke (d) butterfly stroke
The following are importance of gymnastics except _______________ (a) balance diet (b) muscular strength (c) physical fitness (d) proper use of leisure time
The period between conception and the birth of the baby is called __________ (a) birth period (b) gestation period (c) placenta (d) all of the above
A swimmer that swims breasting the water is said to be using __________ (a) back stroke (b) breast stroke (c) butterfly stroke (d)free style stroke
One of the following is odd (a) Ludo (b) Jogging (c) Draught (d) Ayo game
The process of growing old and reaching the end of useful life is called __________________ (a) death (b) ageing (c) birth (d) dementia
Which of the following is not gymnastics equipment? (a) balancing beam (b) shin guard (c) ring (d) mat
One of the importance roles of a child in the family is ________________ (a) beat their parents (b) to run errand for parents (c) disobey their parents (d) insult their parents
The pentathlon consists of __________________ athletics events (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
Buoyancy in aquatics means ___________________ (a) ability to swim (b) ability to float with confidence in water (c) ability to drive (d) ability to play in water
Combined events in athletics are ______________ (a) decalon and octagon (b) pentathlon and decathlum (c) pentathlon and decathlon (d) octagon and decathlon
Gymnastics can be defined as activities performed _______ and _______ (a) floor and mat (b) floor and raised objects (c) ground and sand (d) raised object and poles
Which of this is not an agency for promoting health education in Nigeria (a) NAFDAC (b) NFF(c) NDLEA (d) NAHET
The following injuries can be sustained in gymnastics except _____ (a) fracture (b) dislocation (c) drawn (d) strain
Physical education can be defined as the development of the whole body except ______ (a) physically (b) mentally (c) spiritually (d) emotionally
Which official ensures that all competitors start the race at the same time? (a) Referee (b) Umpire (c) Track Judge (d) Starter

23 The heptathlon consists of __________ athletics events. (a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 4

24. Hurdle, 1500m, 800m, 400m race are for ________________ events ( a) track (b) field (b) track and field (d) all of the above

25. ______________ is the responsibility of Federal Road Safety Corps of Nigeria. (a) to promote health of the nation (b) to control importation of drug (c) to provides safety on our road (d) all of the above

26. All physical activities that are performed in the water are called _______ (a) canoeing (b) boating (c) aquatics (d) swimming

27.The ability to perform one’s work without undue fatique and still have enough energy for social life is _______ (a) social fitness (b) emotional fitness (c) physical fitness (d) energy fitness

28. Poor officiating results to ______ in sport (a) fair play (b) violence (c) good play (d) rapport (e) winning

29. _____________ is the period when a person develops from child into an adult. (a) puberty (b) adult (c) older (d) teenage

30.The start of the monthly period (discharge) in girls mean that ___________ can occur any time (a) breast (b) pregnancy (c) thin voice (d) menstruation

31._________________ are responsible for developing conditioning programmes in various sports (a) teaching (b) coaching (c) sport psychology (d) physical instructor

32.________________ is the medical attention and care given to the baby and the mother after delivery (a) pre-natal (b) post –natal (c) anti natal (d) all of the above

33. The first menstrual cycle of a girl is called __________________ (a) menarche (b) sexual reproduction (c) mesis (d) bleeding

34. The following are sport promoting agencies in Nigeria except ___________ (a) CDN (b) NFTT (c) NBF(d) NSHA

35._______________ is a stroke on the back in which arms stroke alternately with recovery out of the water, and the leg using a flutter kick. (a) butterfly stroke (b) breast stroke (c) back stroke (d) all of the above

36. The following are the parts of school health programmes except ______ (a) school vendors (b) visitors (c) the teachers. (d) non-teaching staff

37. Which of these statements is not true about first aid programme? (a) arrest bleeding (b) prevent early fatigue (c) prevent worst condition (d) safe life (e) quicken recovery

38.________ is the study of peoples in sport (a) sport science (b) sport management (c) sport psychology (d) sport medicine

39. Which of the following is not a branch of physical education? (a) games (b) aquatics (c) gymnastics (d) personality

40. 2The following are health implication of female genital mutilation except ________ (a) infertility (b) infections (c) suffocation (d) death

41. The proper removal of wastes from an environment is ________ (a) sewage disposal (b) clean environment (c) open composite (d) refuse disposal

42. A series of exercises arranged into different stations as individual goes from one station to another is known as (a) interval training (b) weight training (c) circuit training (d) circular training

43. The following are the objectives of recreational activities except ________ (a) to develop physical fitness (b) to reduce long life (c) to correct postural defects (d) to develop skills

44. The main purpose of First Aid is to __________ (a) save life (b) destroy life (c) construct life (d) observe life (e) damage life

45.The scope of health education covers all the following except _______ (a) sex education (b) drug education (c) sound education (d) environmental education

46. __________ is the acquisition of knowledge and skills foe dealing with emergency (a) accident education (b) formal education (c) home education (d) safety education

47. Safety can be defined as _________ (a) free from school (b) recreation time (c) hospitalism (d) free from hazard

48.A coach is a person who ______ (a) is responsible for selecting athletes (b) trains and takes care of athletes (c) works under a physical educator (d) assist the referee to decide winner

49.One of the following is not the type of play (a) forehand (b) singles (c) mixed doubles (d) doubles

50.____________ is contain all the classes of food (a)nutrition (b) metabolism (c)balance diet (d) energy

51. Which one of the following is not a safety precautions in contact sports?(a)Ask question when in doubt (b) Practice skills within your capacity (c)Do not ask question when in doubt (d)Always follow instruction

52. Which class of food builds and repairs worn-out tissues and cells of the body?(a)Fats and oil (b) Vitamins (c) Carbohydrates (d) Proteins

53.Which one of these is not a benefit of contact sports? (a)It provides means of recreation (b)It promote violence (c)It improves mental alertness (d)It aids physical fitness and flexibility

54.The importances of balance diet are ________________ except (a) it helps to maintain good health (b) it promotes growth and builds the body tissues. (c) it provide needed energy for physical exercises (d) it help the environment clean

55.The exercise designed to strengthen up the body is _____________ (a) volley ball (b) basketball (c) football (d) gymnastics

56._____________ are the activities that are performed in water (a) aquatic sports (b) water sports (c) aquarium sports (d) oceanic sports

57.________________ are for both men and women events in combined event (a) decathlon (b) pentathlon (c) heptathlon (d) triathlon

58.Which of these is not a basic skill in contact sport? (a)Tackling (b) Swimming (c)Kicking (d) Dribbling

59.Activities performed without use of apparatus in gymnastics are called (a) floor activities (b) beam activities (c) rope activities (d)mat activities

60.. Examples of stunt activities is ____________ (a) cat spring (b) cartwheel (c)knee balance (d)crab balance

SECTION B:Answer Only Three Questions from This Section

1. Explain the followings and give each examples

I. Triathlon II. Heptathlon iii.Pentathlon iv.Decathlon

b. Mention three value in Gymnastics

c. Explain two contribution that harding j. ekperigin contributed to Nigeria

2. Define the following: i. Gymnastics? Ii. career

B. State four safety precautions in gymnastics

C. Mention the four basic stroke in swimming and explain one

3. Mention four Nigeria heroes and heroines that contribute to Nigerian sports development

B. State three safety rules guiding combined events

C. Mention three relevance of family life education

4. Define the following : i. Family life education ii. Family values iii. Puberty

B. Mention three physical changes in boys and girls each

C. State four sports promoting agencies and bodies in Nigeria

5. What did these acronyms stand for? i. FRSC ii. NSHA iii. NAHET

B. List four career opportunities in physical and health education and explain one

C. Mention three consequence of teenage pregnancy

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY MOCK EXAMINATION QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspension. So, don’t be involved in it!

CLASS: JSS 3

SUBJECT: ICT TIME 1HR:30mins

Instruction: Answer all Questions in this section.

Fill in the blank spaces with the correct option from “a” to “d”.

1. _____ is the main PC box which houses various components of the computer and unto which all computer peripherals are

connected. a) Computer b) CPU c) Hardware d) System unit

2. The following are part of a computer except ____. a) Keyboard b) mouse

c) black berry d) monitor

3. The CPU can be found _____. a) in the System unit b) on the table c) under the table d) on the monitor

4. ____ is used to send data into the computer. a) System unit b) Keyboard

c) Printer d) Monitor

5 The CPU is normally housed on the____ within the System unit. a) monitor b) mouse c) mother board d) printer

6. _____ determines the speed of your computer. a) hard disk b) Memory c) CPU d) keyboard

7. ____ is known as the father of Computing. a. William Seward Burroughs

b. Charles Cliford c. Charles Barbbage.

d. Blaise Pascal

8. ____ is the inventor of the Analytical Engine. a. William Seward Burroughs b. Charles Cliford c. Charles Barbbage.

d. Blaise Pascal

9. What is RAM short for? a) Random Accellerated Motion b) Random Access Memory c) Random Access Movement

10. _____ can be defined as picture representatives for one or more sets of information.

a. Graph b. Paint c. House d. None of the above

(fill in the gaps)

11. Those that have undergone one form of formal computer training or the other are called _____.

12. The ______has the overall responsibility of the computer department

13. The person that looks at the detail of the existing systems and the designs of the computer base system is called ____.

14. Who encodes the procedures detailed by the system analyst in a language suitable for the specified computer?

15. The people that teach computer at various levels are called ____.

16. The people that handle and operate hardware in the computer room; communicate with the operating system and try to keep the system running smoothly are called _____.

17. It is the responsibility of the ____ to maintain and update documents in the library.

8.___ are the people in other professions who make use of computer to do their jobs.

19. _____ is the role of people or humans in the computing process. Peopleware

20. The _____ ensures the computer installation runs efficiently in satisfying the computer needs of the organization which it serves.

(Select the option that best completes the sentences)

21. The main storage area within the computer is the _____ a) Diskette b) Hard disk c) RAM d) ROM

22. The touch pad is an ____ device.

a) Input b) output c) storage d) sound

23. ____ are devices used to send data into the computer for processing. a) Storage devices b) output devices c) input devices d) video sender

24. Earliest computers were ______. a.Pentium one b. People c. Animals

d. Calculators

25. Who invented the Difference Engine?

a. Blaise Pascal b. Charles Babbage c. John napier d. William Seward Burroughs

26. Corel Draw is for _____. a. Paint

b. drawing c. games d. music

27. The following are features of Graphic packages except _____. a. typewriter keys b. title bar c. menu bar color pallet

28. For communication to be complete, it requires _____ a) telephone b) recipient

c) town criers d) whistling

29. The following are ancient methods of communication except _____ a) oral

b) beating of drums c) whistling d) print

30._____ is critical to effective communication between parties.

a) Message b) Telephone c) Feedback d) radio

31. Convert 64 to base 6. a) 2446 b) 2246 c) 1446 d) 2426

32. Convert 72 to base 4 a) 10204 b) 2434 c) 10104 d) 10004

33. Convert 11102 to hexadecimal number. a) A b) B c) C d) D

34. Convert 28 to hexadecimal number (base 16). a) A b) 1E c) 1D d) 1C

35. ____ is one of the functions of Operating system. a) Process management b) Battery management c) Time management d) Office management

36. ____ is a number system that consists of only 0 and 1. a) Hexadecimal number

b) Binary number c) Octal number

d) Decimal number

37. The highest singular number in binary system of number is ____ a) 10 b) 99999 c) 1000000 d) 1

38. The following factors affect the performance of the computer except____. a) RAM size b) CPU speed

c) Defragmentation d) Disk formatting

39. A____ consists of 8 bits. a) Byte

b) Nibble c) Kilobyte d) Megabyte

40. Which of the following is NOT an input device? a) Keyboard b) scanner c) monitor d) mouse

41. What function is used to determine the average value of the selected cells contents? A. AVERAGE B. SUM C. SUMIF

D. WHOLE

42. What function is used to add the contents of selected cells? A. AVERAGE

B. COUNT C. SUM D. COUNTA

43. In Excel 2007 the COUNT function has been replaced by the COUNTA function. Is this true or false? A) True B) False

44. Regarding the SUM function which of the following is using the correct syntax?

A. SUM(C4:C7) B. SUM(C4+C7)

C. =SUM(C4:C7) D. =SUM(C4-C7)

45. Regarding the AVERAGE function which of the following is using the correct syntax? A. AVERAGE(C4:C7) B. AVERAGE(C4:C7)

C. =AVERAGE(C4-C7) D. =AVERAGE(C4:C7)

46. What type of chart is this?

B. Column Chart

47. What is the no. of sales for East?

A. 34 B. 23 C. 60 D. 74

48. The no. of sales for West is ___. A. 34

B. 23 C. 65 D. 74

49. ____ can be used to rearrange your cell content alphabetically. a. Auto fill

b. increase decimal c. Sort d. percentage

50. This is used to ______.

a. Join two or more cells together.

b. Determine how data will be placed within a cell.

c. To make text fall into two or more rows so it can be senn all at once.

d. To fill cells using previous pattern

51. _____ are raw or unprocessed facts.

a. Information b. Memory c. Data

d. Processor

52. Telephone is a __________ device

(a) telecommunication

(b) multicomm

(d) intercom

53. ____ is a structured collection of related records stored in a computer system with the aim of retrieving them at a later date.

a) Record b) Database c) Forms d) Query

54. Why do we need a database?

a) To store messages b) To keep sales record c) to process data d) none of the above

55. A processed data is referred to as _____.

A. Program B. Output C. Flowchart

D. Algorithm

56. The present information age is known as ______.

A. Early age B. Old age C. Electronic age D. Current age

57. One of the following is not a qualities of a good computer professional.

A. Research B. Multitask C. inability to Solve Problems D. Adaptability

58. _____ is a type of program that uses keywords to search for documents that relate to these keywords and then puts the results found in the order relevance to the topic that was searched for.

59. a. Google b. Yahoo c. Website

d. Search engine

60. The existence of gaps in the society between those who have access to technology and those who don’t is called _____. a. Digital device

b. digital divide c. digital decide

d. digital clock

61. A site or area on the World Wide Web that is accessed by its own Internet address is called a _____.

A. web page B. web site C. Home Page D. None of the above

62. Google was started in _____ _____ as a research project. a. January 1996 b. February 1996 c. January 1986 d. February 1986

63. What function is used to determine the average value of the selected cells contents?

A. AVERAGE B. SUM C. SUMIF

D. WHOLE

64.______ are software programs used for relaxation and to learn some skills.

A. Computer program B. Computer Game C. Computer System D, None of the above

65. Which of the following is not an action of virus?

A. Replication B. Creativity

C. camouflage D. Delivery

66. A ______ does not alter files but resides in active memory and replicates.

A. Worm B. Virus C. Trojan Horse

D. Bot

67. What function is used to add the contents of selected cells?

A. AVERAGE B. COUNT C. SUM

D. COUNTA .

68. Regarding the SUM function which of the following is using the correct syntax?

A. SUM(C4:C7) B. SUM(C4+C7)

C. =SUM(C4:C7) D. =SUM(C4-C7)

69. Regarding the AVERAGE function which of the following is using the correct syntax?

A. AVERAGE(C4:C7)

B.AVERAGE(C4:C7)

C. =AVERAGE(C4-C7)

D. =AVERAGE(C4:C7)

70. A ____ is a collection of cells where you store, manipulate and display data.

A. Cell B. Worksheet C. Workbook

D. None of the above.

71. Computer games can be played using the following except _______.

A. Keyboard B. Joystick C. Mouse

D. Light Pen

72______ is a cell with a thick boarder around it. A. Name box B. Active cell C. Formula bar

D. Row & column

73. The largest category of computer criminals are called _____.

A Crackers B. Thieves C. Hackers D. Agents

74. The Assembler is an interpreter to which language? (a) Machine language. (b) mid-level language (c) high level (d) low level

75. A document on the World Wide Web is called ______.A. Web page B. Hypertext

C. Website D. Internet

76. A person working in the field of information technology

A. Computer professional B. computer scientist C. Computer manufacture

D. None of the above.

77. One who has studied the theoretical foundations of information and computation and their application is known as _____.

78. One of the following is not a quality of a good computer professional.

A. Research B. Multitask C. inability to Solve Problems D. Adaptability

79. The ____ is responsible for licensing and registering private telecommunications concerns in Nigeria.

A. Nigerian Communications

Commission

B. Nigeria Computer Society

C. Computer Professionals Registration Council

D. African Information Security

Association

80. ______ is a person who writes computer software.

A. Computer system Analyst

B. Software Engineers C. Computer Programmer D. Computer technician

81. The following are means of transmitting information EXCEPT ____. A. fire lighting B. Oral C. Radio

D. dancing

82. What is the full meaning of FTP?

A. File Transfer Protocol B. File Transfer Program C. File Transfer Particles D. File Transfer process

83. What is the full meaning of HTTP?

A. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

B. Hyper Transfer Text Protocol

C. Hyper Tension Transfer Protocol

D. Hyper Time Transfer Protocol

84. The benefit of new economy include the following except _____.

A. It is difficult to operate

B. It creates new jobs

C. requires low capital to start a new business

85. The collection of two or more computers to share resources and communicate with one another is called _____.

A. Network B. Modem C. transmission

D. Computer

86. Computers perform specific functions, but to do this it needs sequence of ________ (a) agenda

(b) plans (c)instructions (d) formatting

87. The following are computer programming languages except

(a) C (b) C++ (c) Basic (d) Master

88. The ______ language is the computer fundamental language and the only language directly understood by the computer

(a) machine language (b) low level language (c) high level language

(d) mid-level language

89. Which part of the CPU handles arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division etc.?

a) Control unit b) Logic unit c) Register

d) Arithmetic unit

90. Cutting tools and weapons were mainly made of iron or steel in the ____ age. a) Stone b) middle age

c) stone age

d) industrial age.

91, The information age that is characterized by the ability of individual to transfer information freely and to have instant access to knowledge that would have been difficult or impossible to find previously. a) Digital age b) Stone age

c) Iron age d) Middle age

92. Before counting devices were invented, man used the following except ____ for counting. a) Calculator b) pebbles c) stones d) fingers

93. ____ is made up of wooden frames bearing parallel lines of threads or wires upon which beads are moved for counting. a) Napier bones b) Abacus

c) Pascaline d) Difference engine

94. A device, made of bones was invented in 1617. a) Pascaline b) slide rule

c) analytical engine d) Napier bones

95. The Economy of a country can be measured through ____. a) Analytical machine b) exchange rate c) Slide rule

d) none of the above

96. The following is a feature of the old economy except ____. a) It is time consuming b) It is labour based economy

c) It is digital and not mechanical

d) The means of communication is slow

97. An activity engaged in for diversion or amusement is ______. A. Audio game

B. Game C. Video D. None of the above

98. _______ is another name for web browser.

A. Website B. Web page C. Internet browser D. Domain Name System (DNS).

99. In Ms Excel, text is aligned by default within a cell to the_____.

a. left b. right c. middle d. none of the above

100. In Ms Excel, number is aligned by default within a cell to the_____.

a. left b. right c. middle d. none of the above

SECTION B (Theory)

Answer only two questions

1. Who is a computer professional?

b. list 7 computer professionals and describe the functions of any two of them.

2. A. What are input devices?

B. Mention 4 input devices

C. State and explain the 2 types of keyboard

3. What is computer virus?

b. List three classes of computer virus and explain any one of them

c. Differentiate between the three major types of Malware

4. Define:

i. Game ii. Video game

iii. Computer game

b. List 7 examples of computer games.

5. What is a graph?

b. List 5 types of graph

c. Draw any two of the above

MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR JSS3 MATHEMATICS – Edudelight.com

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

CLASS: J. S. S. 3

TIME: 3hrs

Frequency means the ………. A. difference between the highest and lowest numbers B. most occurring item C. number in the middle of the set D. number of times an item occurs
……… is an example of a cuboid A. sugar B. match box C. Maggi D. funnel
The next term of the sequence 1, 4, 9, 16, 25… is A. 26 B. 36 C. 46 D. 56
Which of the following statistical terms is correct? A. mode = mean B. median = average
C. mean = median D. average = mean
Convert 10111₂ to the number in base ten A. 23 B. 22 C. 21 D. 20
—- is a circular graph A. pie chart B. bar chart C. histogram D. curve
A cube has …. Edges A. eight B. six C. ten D. twelve
Given a set of numbers: 30, 29, 35,40,41,52 and 60. What is the range? A. 30 B. 31 C. 41 D. 51
Find the arithmetic mean of the set of numbers 1,3,5,7 and 9 A. 9 B. 7 C. 5 D. 3
If the average age of 6 boys is 14 years, find their total age A. 54 years B. 64 years C. 74 years D. 84 years

The difference between square of 9 and its square root divide by 2 is … A. 81 B. 78 C. 64 D. 39
Simplify 700 – (+400) – (-80) A. 380 B. 370 C. 360 D. 350

The table below gives the distribution of the ages (in years) of 30 students in a school club. Use the information to answer question 13 – 16

Age (years)	10	11	12	13	14	15
Frequency	4	12	7	4	2	1

Find the mode of the distribution A. 11 years B. 12 years C. 13 years D. 14 years
Find the median A. 11 years B. 12 years C. 11.5 years D. 12.5 years
Calculate the mean of the distribution A. 5 years B. 6 years C. 11.7 years D. 11 years
What is the probability that a student in the club is 11 years A. 0 B. ²/₁₅ C. ⁸/₁₅ D. ²/₅
The mean of 5 numbers: 8,11,6,3 and x is 7, find x A. 11 B. 8 C. 7 D. 6
Convert 26 to a number in binary A. 11100_two B. 11010_two C. 11110_two D. 10011_two
——- is the difference between the highest value and the lowest value A. range B.mode C. median D. arithmetic mean
Expand: (y-6)² A. y²+ 12y + 36 B. y²– 12y – 36 C. y²+ 12y – 36 D. y²– 12y + 36
Write ²/₇ in words A. two over seven B. two and seven C. two – sevenths D. two – seven
What is the smallest number to be subtracted from 175 to make it divisible by 13

A. 25 B. 13 C. 10 D. 6

Simplify: ³/₄(x + 4) = ²/₃(¹/₄ – x) A. -8 B. -6 C. -4 D. -2
Find the coefficient of pq in the expansion of (4p + 3q)(2p – q) A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
Find the product of ¹/₇ and the sum of ³/₅and ¹/₂ A. 2¹⁷/₂₀ B. 2⁷/₇₀ C. ³/₁₀ D. ²/₇
Solve: 0 = 3²/₃P – 22 A. 11 B. 6 C. 3 D. 2
Solve for ‘a’ in the equation: a _ 3 = 1

a – 2 1 + a A. 8 B. 4 C. -1 D. -8

132_four+ 123_four is …….. A. 221_fourB. 231_four C. 321_four D. 311_four
Seven – tenths of an hour is …… A. 42 mins B. 45 mins C. 48 mins D. 50 mins
How many meters are there in d kilometers? A. 1000d meters B. (d + 1000) meters

C. d meters D. (d – 1000) meters

If 0.68 is expressed as a fraction in its lowest term, its denominator is …..A. 40 B. 29 C. 25 D. 17
Subtract 1001₂ from 1110₂ and convert your answer to base 10 A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8
The mean of these numbers: 8, 11,16,3 and x is 9. The value of x is …… A. 11 B. 8 C. 6 D. 7
Remove bracket and simplify: p (p + q) – q(p + q) A. p² + 2q² B. p² + q² C. p² – 2q² D. p² + q²
A fair die has a …… shape A. triangular B. spherical C. cubical D. conical
Calculate the mean of the following numbers: 1980,1981, 1982, 1983, 1984

A. 1980 B. 1982 C. 1983 D. 1984

Multiply (3 + b) by ( 4 + 2b) A. 2b² + 10b + 7 B. 2b² + 7b + 10 C. 2b² + 10b + 12 D. 2b² + 12b + 10

Share #3,000 in the ratio 2 : 3 among Tayo and Hamed A. Tayo (1,000); Hamed (1,000)

B. Tayo (500); Hamed (1500) C. Tayo (1,200); Hamed (1,800) D. Tayo (1,200); Hamed (1,200)

reduced to its lowest term is …… A. ⁹/₁₁ B. ¹³/₁₅ C. ¹⁵/₁₈ D. ²⁶/₃₀
Solve for x in 3(x + 2) = 2(x + 2) A. 4 B. 2 C. -2 D. -4
Find the LCM of 6a², 8a and 4ab A. 24ab B. 24ab² C. 24a²b D. 24a²b²
Make h the subject of the formula in V² = 2gh A. h = V²/ 2gh B. h = V²2g C. h = 2g/V² D. h = g/2
Make d the subject of formula: V = 3d A. ^V/_3d B. ^V/_d C. ^V/₃ D.^V/₃_d
A boy scored 35% in English, 60% in social studies, 58% in mathematics and 73% in basic science.

Calculate his mean score A. 56.5% B. 46.5% C. 36.5% D. 26.5%

Expand: (p + 6)(p – 3) A. p² – 3p – 18 B. p² + 3p – 18 C. p² + 3p + 18 D. p² – 6p – 18
Solve MMXXVII – MCMXCII A. LV B. XLV C. XXXV D. XXV
The average attendance at school for 5 days was 264. The attendances on 4 for those days were…….

A. 264 B. 274 C. 284 D. 294

The angles of a quadrilateral are in ratio 6:7:8:9. The largest angle will be ………

A. 30⁰ B. 72⁰ C. 84⁰ D. 108⁰

Find the missing number, if the addition below is in base nine: 2 4 0

x x x

8 0 1

1 5 2 3_nine A. 462 B. 472 C. 373 D. 272

Evaluate : 0.2² x 9

0.3² A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 3

Which of the following is not a factor of 72? A. 72 B. 36 C. 24 D. 18 E. 15
Find the value of x in the figure below

50^o B. 55^o C. 45^o D. 75^o E. 40^o
The diagonals of a rhombus are 16cm and 12cm long. Calculate the length of its side. A. 6cm

B.8cm C. 10cm D. 12cm E. 14cm

What percentage of 4m is 20cm? A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 20 D. 30 E. 50
If 6³/₄ is expressed as an improper fraction, its numerator will be
3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 24 E. 27
Two angles are said to be complementary if their sum is A. 60⁰ B. 90⁰ C. 180⁰ D. 270⁰ E. 360⁰
A tricycle travels 180km in 4 hours. What is its speed in km/h? A. 45 B. 84 C. 178 D. 720 E. 1800
The area of a triangle is 54cm². If the height of the triangle is 6cm, find its base. A. 9cm B. 12cm

C. 21cm D. 18cm E. 27cm

Convert 1010_two to base 10 A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 E. 12
What is the missing number if the following addition is in base two? x x x x x

1 1 1

1 0 0 1 0 1

11111 B. 11110 C. 10110 D. 10101 E. 10011
The area of a rhombus is 24cm². If one of its diagonals is 6cm, find the length of the other diagonal. A. 2cm

B. 4cm C. 8cm D. 10cm E. 18cm

A wrist watch costs #8,000. At what price will Kunle sell it to make a profit of 20%? A. #7,600

B.#8,400 C. #9,600 D. #12,600

Express 5613_ten in base 8 A. 17255 B. 15527 C. 12755 D. 10752 E. 10101

64. In a right-angled triangle, the side opposite the right angle is known as A. equilateral B. hypotenuse

C. obtuse D. parallel E. scalene

65. Express 1101_two in denary. A. 50 B. 27 C. 20 D. 13

66. If the area of the plane shape below is 36cm², find its height.

12cm
A. 3cm B. 4cm C. 5cm D. 6cm E. 9cm

67. A pencil costs #10 while a dozen costs #100. How much Mrs. Musa would saves if she buys ninety-six pencils at dozen prices? A. #150 B. #160 C. #180 D. #200 E. #250

68. Find the area of a circle of diameter 14cm. () A. 44cm² B. 154cm² C. 308cm² D. 616cm²

69. If the first common multiple of two numbers is 6, find the fourth common multiple. A. 6 B. 18 C. 24
D. 30 E. 36

70. Find the perimeter of a regular hexagon with side 5cm. A. 20cm B. 26cm C. 30cm D. 36cm

71. A dealer was paid 5% commission on all the recharge cards he sold. If he sold #50,000 worth of cards, how much commission did he get? A. #1,000 B. #1,500 C. #2,500 D. #5,0000

72. In the figure below, angle SAB is alternate to angle ….

A. 180^o B. 35^o C. 75^o D. 105^o E. 42^o

73. Express 0.000724 in standard form. A. 7.24 x 10^-2 B. 7.24 x 10^-3 C. 7.24 x 10^-4 D. 7.24 x 10^-5

Which of the following is not true? A. rectangles are parallelograms B. Rhombuses are parallelogram
C. Rhombuses are squares D. Squares are rectangles E. Squares are rhombuses
The price of a television set is reduced from #20,000 to #16,000. Find the percentage discount. A. 5 B. 10
C. 20 D. 30 D. 50

76. How many vertices does a cube have? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 E. 16

77. Evaluate A. 1 B. 1 C. D. E.

78. What is the square root of ? A. B. C. D. E.

79. What is the square of the HCF of 60 and 108? A. 12 B. 30 C. 36 D. 120 E. 144

80. A basket contains 40 mangoes, out of which 22 are good. Find the percentage of the mangoes that are bad.
A. 18 B. 22 C. 24 D. 45 E. 60

81.What percentage of 4m is 20cm? A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 20 D. 30 E. 50

82.If 6³/₄ is expressed as an improper fraction, its numerator will be A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 24 E. 27

83.A wrist watch costs #8,000. At what price will Kunle sell it to make a profit of 20%? A. #7,600 B. #8,400 C. #9,600 D. #12,600

Which of the following is not a factor of 72? A. 72 B. 36 C. 24 D. 18 E. 15

What percentage of 4m is 20cm? A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 20 D. 30 E. 50

85.If 6³/₄ is expressed as an improper fraction, its numerator will be A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 24 E. 27

A wrist watch costs #8,000. At what price will Kunle sell it to make a profit of 20%? A. #7,600 B. #8,400 C. #9,600 D. #12,600
A pencil cost #10 while a dozen costs #100. How much Mrs. Musa would saves if she buys ninety-six pencils at dozen prices? A. #150 B. #160 C. #180 D. #200 E. #250
Find the area of a circle of diameter 14cm. () A. 44cm² B. 154cm² C. 308cm² D. 616cm²
If the first common multiple of two numbers is 6, find the fourth common multiple. A. 6 B. 18 C. 24 D. 30 E. 36
A dealer was paid 5% commission on all the recharge cards he sold. If he sold #50,000 worth of cards, how much commission did he get? A. #1,000 B. #1,500 C. #2,500 D. #5,0000
Find the value of the angle marked x

A. 60^o B. 45^o C. 17^5o D. 18^o E. 15^o

Express 0.000724 in standard form. A. 7.24 x 10^-2 B. 7.24 x 10^-3 C. 7.24 x 10^-4 D. 7.24 x 10^-5
Which of the following is not true? A. rectangles are parallelograms B. Rhombuses are parallelogram
C. Rhombuses are squares D. Squares are rectangles E. Squares are rhombuses
The price of a television set is reduced from #20,000 to #16,000. Find the percentage discount. A. 5 B. 10
C. 20 D. 30 D. 50
How many vertices does a cube have? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 E. 16
Evaluate A. 1 B. 1 C. D. E.
What is the square root of ? A. B. C. D. E.
What is the square of the HCF of 60 and 108? A. 12 B. 30 C. 36 D. 120 E. 144
A basket contains 40 mangoes, out of which 22 are good. Find the percentage of the mangoes that are bad.
A. 18 B. 22 C. 24 D. 45 E. 60
Simplify and leave your answer in ordinary form. A. 3000 B. 1000 C. 2000 D. 30000 E. 4000

MATHEMATICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

THEORY: Instructions: Answer five questions. No 1 and 2 are compulsory

Solve the simultaneous equation

5x-2y = 11 …(1)

4x-3y = 6 …(2)

Using: (a)Substitution method (b)Elimination method (c)Graphical method

Age (years)	12	13	14	15	16
No. of students	4	6	4	4	2

Calculate the mean age
Find the median
Obtain the mode

(a) Find the area of the plane shape below

10cm

13cm

15cm

(b) find the sum of the length and the breadth of a rectangle whose length is twice the breadth and area equal
to 72cm²

(c) A cylindrical tank of storing oil has a capacity of 1078m³. If its height and its radius are equal, calculate the depth of oil in the tank when full. (Take = ²²/₇)

4. (a) calculate the angle of elevation of a man 6m away from the base of a tree 8m tall.

(b) The table below is the colour of cars used in a particular school.

How many cars are in the school?
Draw a bar chart to represent the data.
Identify the popular colour
The statistical name for the popular colour is called.
Find the probability of selecting the popular colour.
The volume of a given mass M varies directly as its temperature and inversely as its pressure. If the volume is 30cm³ when its temperature is 10k and pressure 40mmHg, calculate:
The constant of proportionality
The formula connecting them
The pressure when the volume is 50cm³and temperature 2k.

5b) Find the value of y in the figure

6a) D is partly constant and partly varies with V. When V = 40, D =150 and when V = 54, D = 192.

(i) Find the formula connecting D and V.

(ii) Find D when V = 73.

b) I added 18 to 3 times a number, the result is equal to 5 times the number. What is the number ?

c) Solve the equation:

X – 4 – 2 = -X

5 2

(7 ) Show that triangles ABC and XYZ are similar and hence find sides AB & XZ

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES (CRS) MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: C.R.S Duration: 2 ½ HRS Class: JSS 3

SECTION A

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

1. Christian religion teaches man how best to maintain his ________ with God.

(a) religiousity (b) aggression (c) relationship (d) opposition (e) hatred

2. It took _______ days to create heaven and earth (a) one (b) two (c) seven (d) six (e) four

3. The resultant effect of the sin of our first parents with regards to man’s relationship with God is _______ (a) nakedness (b) death (c) grace (d) freedom (e) selfishness

4. Scientific inventions by man shows that man shares in God’s (a) almightiness (b) dignity (c) discovery (d) creativity (e) sovereignty

5. ________ is the last book of the Old Testament. (a) Kings (b) Isaiah (c) Micah (d) Malachi (e) Ruth

6. “Be fruitful and multiply” means God’s given power to________ (a) live (b) overcome (c) procreate (d) reign (e) supplant

7. The sin committed by Adam and Eve is usually referred to as the sin of __________ (a) ambition to know good and evil (b) disobedience to the will of God (c) evil desire to be wise (d) evil desire to eat delicious fruit (e) temptation by the devil.

8. In response to God’s call, Abram left his father’s house in____ at the age of _________ (a) Canaan, 75 (b) Egypt, 57 (c) Haran, 75 (d) Midian, 57 (e) Eden, 99

9. Where did God ask Abraham to go? (a) Egypt (b) Haran (c) Canaan (d) Ur (e) Shechem

10. Who did Abraham take along with him apart from his wife? (a) Isaac (b) David (c) Lot (d) Joseph (e) Daniel

11. Abraham laughed when God told him that his wife Sarah would give birth to a son because ________(a) God does not keep promises (b) He did not believe God (c) He already had Ishmael (d) It was not possible (e) there was no hope

12. The covenant between Abraham and God was bound with ______ (a) blood (b) flesh (c) fire (d) water (e) wind

13. The Hausa name for God is _________ (a) Allah (b) Ubangiji (c) Soko (d) Shekwo (e) Abasi

14. The sacrificial animal God gave to Abraham as a substitute for his son Isaac was __________ (a) a lamb (b) Jesus Christ (c) a ram (d) an ox (e) a sheep

15. The means of restoring broken relationship is called ________ (a) restitution (b) reparation (c) restoration (d) settlement (e) reconciliation

16. “In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth” this implies that before the beginning of man, God_________ (a) has building material (b) was in existence (c) was an architect (d) had no beginning (e) had no home

17. Reconciliation is complete when one_______ (a) asks for forgiveness accepts his/her fault (b) is totally forgiven and accepted back (c) refuses to accept his wrong (d) shows sorrow in repentance

18. Abraham father’s name was _________ (a) Isaac (b) Jacob (c) Israel (d) Seth (e) Terah

19. Another name for the ten commandments is the ________ (a) deacon (b) Decalogue (c) prophets (d) inspiration (e) law

20. The ten commandments was received by _______ at mount _______ (a) Moses, Sinai (b) Joshua, Gilboa (c) Joshua, Horeb (d) Moses, Zion (e) Joseph, Carmel

21. Joseph was sent to _________to see the welfare of his brothers. (a) Shechem (b) Egypt (c) Bethel (d) Nazareth (e) Judea

22. The city of Jericho conquered under the leadership of ___________ (a) Aaron (b) Moses (c) Caleb (d) Joshua (e) Deborah

23. The prophet who foretold the birth of Jesus Christ was_________ (a) Elijah (b) Jeremiah (c) Micah (d) Ezekiel (e) Isaiah

24. The Bible Contains _____ books (a) 66 (b) 39 (c) 66 (d) 69 (e) 67

25. Which of these is NOT a book of the prophets? (a) Amos (b) Jeremiah (c) Hosea (d) Malachi (e) Ezra

26. To be a good child, you should behave like (a) Joel (b) Samuel (c)Hophni (d) Phineas (e) Ahijah

27. The supreme law is ______ (a) law (b) love (c) friendship (d) companion (e) grace

28. At the time Deborah became a judge in Israel, she was a _______ (a) prophetess (b) priestess (c) seer (d) medium (e) sorcerer

29. God revealed himself to his people through the following ways Except ________ (a) prophecy (b) vision (c) mission (d) dream (e) holy spirit

30. The main purpose of marriage is _________ (a) to bear children (b) to get wealth from in-laws (c) for companionship (d) to improve social status (e) to make name

31. The term “conflict” means_____ (a) association (b) disagreement (c) co-operation (d) understanding (e) disloyalty

32. Social disorder in the society is sometimes caused by______ (a) honesty of the leaders (b) loyalty of followers (c) obedience of subject (d) truthfulness of the leaders (e) unequal distribution of resources

33. The significance of the resurrection of Jesus Christ shows _______ (a) Jesus power over nature (b) Jesus power over the supernatural (c) Jesus’ victory over sin (d) Jesus’ victory over death (e) Jesus’ victory over the world

34. Who was the founder of Christ Apostolic Church? (a) Joseph Babalola (b) Moses Orimolade (c) Joseph Ositelu (d) Samuel Ajayi Crowther (e) S. B. J. Oshoffa

35. Which of these incidents finally forced pharaoh to let go the Hebrews out of Egypt? (a) death to cattle (b) plague of blood (c) plague of frogs (d) death of the first borns (e) plague of locust

36. Cain killed his brother Abel because ________ (a) he was not his brother’s keeper (b) he did not like him (c) Abel’s sacrifice was accepted by God (d) Cain was his senior (e) Abel was the favourite of their father

37. “Who made you a prince and a judge over us”. This questions was asked when Moses__ (a) separated two Israelites fighting (b) defended the right of the Israelites (c) came to deliver the Israelites (d) condemned Israelites fighting each other

38. People of different tribes in Nigeria are brothers and sisters because (a) there is only one God (b) we are all made in God’s image (c) we belong to a common ancestor (d) we are fellow Nigerians (d) we belong to the same religious denominations

39. Virginity means a state of being ______ (a) disvirgined (b) a virgin (c) unmarried (d) successfully married (e) insane

40. “Do not be afraid Zechariah for your prayer is heard” what was the reason for the prayer? (a) He was dumb (b) He was deaf (c) He was barren (d) He was lame (e) He wanted to be rich

41. Mary was conceived by ___ (a) Angel Gabriel (b) The holy Spirit (c) Joseph (d) God (e) Prophet Isaiah

42. John the Baptist baptized with water but Jesus would baptize with________ (a) holy Ghost and fire (b) holy spirit and water (c) fire and the word (d) the word of God (e) water and fire

43. Who spoke on behalf of Christians on the day of Pentecost? (a) Jacob (b) Peter (c) James (d) John (e) Andrew

44. The gift of myrrh presented to Jesus at his birth signifies (a) His Kingship (b) His death (c) His priesthood (d) His royalty (e) His prophethood

45. After the baptism Jesus Christ was driven to _____ (a) the wilderness (b) the temple (c) the synagogue (d) the upper room (e) Jordan

46. When we yield to temptation we _____ (a) pleases God (b) sin (c) Prosper (d) die (e) are blessed

47. The major effect of sin on man is that it ____ (a) makes man more wicked (b) makes man upright (c) make man healthy (d) separates man from God (e) separates man from the world

48. The fact that Jesus Christ was tempted shows that _______ (a) no man can be tempted (b) no one can overcome temptation (c) Jesus Christ was not careful enough (d) no one is above temptation (e) we cannot all be perfect

49. “Christ is the head of my family, the unseen quest at every meal, the silent listener to every conversation. “This statement manifests God’s________ (a) immorality (b) invisibility (c) omnipresence (d) omniscience (e) dignity

50. As a Christian prefect in your school, what should be your attitude towards those under you? (A) Demand respect from all the students (b) make all the Juniors realize that they are inferior (c) make sure no student opposes you (d) show love to Christian students alone (e) treat everybody equally

SECTION B

INSTRUCTION: Answer two questions from this section.

1. (A.) List the accusation leveled against Paul?

(B.) List two major parties of the Sanhedrin.

2. (A.) List four towns visited by Paul and Barnabas in their first Missionary Journey.

(B.) State the Composition of the Jerusalem Council.

3. State the major decision of the Jerusalem Council.

4. State the effect of Paul’s encounter with Jesus on the way Damascus.

(B.) Narrate the part played by Ananias.

5. Narrate the safety of Peter’s encounter with Simon the magician.

(B.) Tell the story of the raising of Dorcas.

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: SOCIAL STUDIES Duration: 2HRS Class: JSS 3

SECTION A

Instruction: Answer all question in this section

The group of people related by blood is called…….. A. Family B. Organization C. Member D. Father
The process by which government sells its shares in companies to individual and group is……… A. Commercialization B. Deregulation C. Import Trade D. Privatization
The buying and selling of goods and service in order to satisfy human want is called? A. Farming B. Manufacturing C. Marketing D. Trading
The two system of Farming are ……… A. Livestock and Arable farming B. Mixed and dairy farming C. Poultry and Fishing farming D. Tradition and Mechanized farming
The conflict between Modakeke and Ife is……….. Type of conflict. A. Inter Communal B. Inter nation C. Inter Ethnic D. International
………… refer to the connection that exist between individual and group of society A. Community member B. Social environment C. Social organization D. Organization society
The type of marriage performed according to the tradition and custom of group of people is …………. Marriage. A. Court B. Customary C. Religion D. Securities
The method of storing things in a refrigerator is known as ………. A. Killing B. Smoking C. Salting D. refrigeration
One of the following is NOT a primary role of the family? A. Ensure continued existence of the community B. Involve in child trafficking C. Provide for the need of Family D. Take care of the young ones
A person is said to be a ……… when he cannot live without a particular drug of substance. A. Drug abuse B. Drug baron C. Drug addict D. Drug trafficking
The habit of self medication is ……….. A. Drug abuse B. Drug baron C. Drug addict D. Drug trafficking
A place where teaching and learning takes place called ………. A. Hospital B. Kitchen C. Market D. School
………. Is a low land between two hills? A. Delta B. Hill C. Lake D. Valley
There are ……… and ………. Classification of settlement. A. region and urban B. remote and rural C. rural and rural D. rural and urban
Cotton is common in which of these States? A. Delta B. Enugu C. Kano D. Oyo
A situation in which a woman has more than one husband is …………… A. endogamy B. monogamy C. polyandry D. polygamy
Love, loyal and willingness to serve one’s country is called…….. A. bravery B. Citizenship C. Patriotism D. Warmth
………….. Is the major reason for the amalgamation of southern and northern Nigeria. A Coat of Arm B. National Anthem C. National Flag D. National pledge
………….. Is an emblem which shows the unity of the country and stands for authority and powers? A. Formal and Informal education B. Junior and Senior School C. Primary and Secondary School D. 6-3-3-4 and 6-5-4
There are ……… types of environment. A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Friendship could be defined as…….. A. a state of being cruel to others B. a state of being emotionally attached to someone you like C. a state of fighting one another D. a state of loving one only things are good
A saying that “culture is dynamic” means ……… A. Culture has a lot of powers B. Culture is a kind of dynamism C. Culture does not remain the same D. Culture and Dynamism are related
We can prevent HIV/AID by ……… A. Eating balance diet B. Not playing together C. Sharing sharp object D. Use of screened blood
……………. Is a way of improving friendship? A. Disagreeing with each other B. Exchange of gifts C. Making trouble D. Quarreling
The following factors could destroy friendship EXCEPT…….. A. Betrayal of trust B. Gossiping C. Honesty D. Selfishness
Permanent separation of husband and wife is called……… A. Companionship B. Divorce C. Monogamy D. Polygamy
The following are sources of population data EXCEPT……. A. Birth rate B. Census C. Death rate D. Wealth rate
Agents of socialization does not include ………. A. Mass Media B. Peer Group C. Police D. Religion Institution
The institution responsible for the teaching of value and moral in our society is the ………. Institution A. economic B. political C. legal D. religious
The Nigeria economy is dominated by the export of ……… product. A. chemical B. crude oil C. agriculture D. engineering
The process by which a child acquires language value and belief is known as. A. specialization B. integration C. socialization D. civilization
Which of the following option shows similarity in our religion? A. Unity B. Holy land C. Symbols D. Mode of worships
From the option below, indicate one advantage of a mono company. A. Diversification B. Deregulation C. Industrialization D. Specialization
Chose from the following one that is NOT a main economic activity. A. Industry B. Education C. Export D. Farming
From the alternative, select one skill necessary when seeking help. A. Passiveness B. Manipulation C. Assertiveness D. Shyness
Identify from the underlisted, one that is NOT an effect of gender stereotype. A. Kill initiative B. Promote gender equally C. Cam limit achievement D. Encourage unnecessary rivalry
Chose from the alternative three voluntary organizations found in schools. A. Newspaper B. Internet C. Face book D. Talking Drum
Indicate from the alternative three voluntary organizations found in schools. A. Girls guide, Rotary club, Inner Wheel B. Boys brigade, Girls Brigade and Red cross C. Man O’ war, Pirates, and Sheriff guards D. Red cross, Boys scout and Black axe
The Ibibio in the south-south region of Nigeria call God……. A. Osalobua B. Tamara C. Oghene D. Abasi
Chose from the following one that is NOT a characteristic of a goods goal. A. Achievable B. Measurable C. No time limit D. Realistic
Living peacefully with people of different religion is called religious….. A. tolerance B. difference C. Intolerance D. faith
Kin relationship that could be traced to father lineage is known as………. A. partridge B. lineage C. partlineal D. percentage
From the following, indicate one that is NOT a challenge in Marriage. A. Death B. Faithfulness C. Quarrels D. Separation.
Which of the following is NOT one of the causes of corruption? A. poverty B. insecurity C. greed D. contentment
Taking drugs more than the prescribed dosage is a form of …….. Abuse. A. stimulant B. substance C. drug D. medical
Indicate from the underlisted one that is NOT a function of marriage. A. Security B. Companionship C. Procreation D. Share of love
Select from the underlisted one that is NOT a characteristic of a secondary social group. A. They are linked by occupation B. Belong to the, same family D. Relate intimately with each other
A marriage between people of the different ethnic group is called……..marriage. A. Inter-ethnic B. inter-states C. different language D. inter tribal
All these are dangers for abusing drugs EXCEPT…….. A. brain damage B. rejection from family C. health problem D. academic progress
Select from the alternative provide, one advantage of inter-ethnic marriage. A. Promote inter-ethnic segregation B. interfere with ethnic identity C. Eliminate ethnic D. Encourage tribalism
Chose from the following, one reason why a man is referred to as a social animal. A. He learn social studies B. Man lives in a community C. He acquires wealth D. He interact with others
From the option, identify one document that guarantee the right of citizen. A. National passport B. Birth certificate C. Constitution D. National ID card
The judgment a person makes of him/herself best describes…… A. Self esteem B. Decision making C. Values D. Negotiation
From the various ways we express ourselves, pick out one of the most appropriate from the option listed. A. Passiveness B. Assertiveness C. Aggressiveness D. Manipulation
From the options, select ways of encouraging members of the school community. A. Loyalty and respect B. Discipline and cooperation C. Reward and Award D. Acceptance and Responsibilities
Marriage ceremony based on the law and custom of the bride is known as…………marriage A. Customary B. Traditional C. Ordinance D. Religious
Choose from option provided the best way to determine the population a country. A. Voting B. Registration C. Election D. Census
Indicate from the following strategy for achieving global cooperation. A. Bilateral and multilateral agreement B. Economic Dependence C. Control of less developed countries D. Use of Interpol to harass less developed state.

SECTION B

Answer Three (3) Questions in this section

1. a. Define Conflicts?

b. Mention 4 examples of conflicts and explain each

2. Highlight five (5) ways of promoting peace in our society

3. State five (5) characteristic of low self esteem and explain

4. a. State five (5) group of cult in our society

b. Mention five (5) cause of cultism in Nigeria and explain

5. Expanciate five (5) consequence of Harmful Tradition Practice

CIVIC EDUCATION MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: CIVIC EDUCATION Duration: 2HRS Class: JSS 3

1.The willingness to work hard and give your energy and time to a job or activity is called(A)spiritual(B)commitment(C)brave(D)hard work

2 The rule of law is(A)supremacy of the law over every citizen in a country(B)human right protection(C)supremacy of the law over the rich(D)securing lives and properties of the citizens

3.Democracy is(A)a system of government which all people in a country can vote to elect their representatives in government(B)a group of people who are looking for job(C)an individual who makes final use of goods and services(D)none of the above

4.The road sign light that shows”red”means(A)go(B)get ready(C)stop(D)drive fast

5………….is the manipulation of electoral process by the candidates, political parties and electoral commission(A)electoral malpractices(B)Forms of election(C)consequences of election(D)none of the above

6.The institution that is responsible for the prosecution of drug traffickers and drug abuse is called?(A)EFCC(B)ICPC(C)NECO(D)NDLEA

7.The speaker of the Lagos state House of Assembly is(A)Hon.Yakubu Dogara(B)Dr.Bukola Saraki(C)Hon Mudashiru Obasa(D)Hon Bello Aminu

8.A courageous person is one who is(A)friendly(B)fighter(C)brave(D)lazy

9.The symbols of authority for the legislative arm of government are……….and………(A)mace and gravel(B)coat of arms and national flag(C)wig and scale of justice(D)constitution and Bible

10.Who propounded the theory of rule of law?(A)Obafemi Awolowo(B)Abraham Lincoln(C)Professor A.V Dicey(D)Dr.Nnamdi Azikwe

11.The form of electoral malpractices include the following except(A)free and fair election(B)election rigging(C)thuggery(D)bribery and corruption

12.The body which has the responsibility to organize and conduct election in Nigeria is(A)political parties(B)pressure group(C)democratic institution(D)Independent National Electoral Commission

14.The first written constitution in Nigeria is(A)macpherson constitution(B)Clifford Constitution (C)Lyttleton constitution(D)A and B

15.To be eligible to vote, you have to be……….in Nigeria(A)16 years(B)18years(C)20 years(D)22

16………..is a document that contains the rules and regulation governing a country (A)convention (B)manifesto(C)institution(D)constitution

17.Which of the arms of government is responsible for interpretation and application of law(A)Executive(B)Legislature(C)Judiciary(D)Governors

18.Lagos state is made up of how many local government(A)15(B)20(C)25

19.The main function of the police is?(A)to fight war(B)to maintain law and order in the society(C)to collect bribe(D)to block traffic movement

20.The government that is closer to the people is(A)federal government(B)state government (C)local government(D)A and C

21.Being a citizen of two countries at the same time is called(A)dual citizenship (B)renunciation (C)honorary citizenship(D)citizenship by birth

22.The following are the attribute of discipline except (A)self control (B)moderation (C)perseverance (D)intolerance

24.The abduction of over 200 girls in Nigeria occurred in which town? (A)Benin (B)Sapele (C)Usen (D)Chibok

25.A program and policies of a political party is called (A)manifesto (B)campaign (C)rally (D)constitution.

26.Negative behavior simply means? (a) unjustifiable behaviors (b) social unacceptable behavior (c) social unpopular behavior (d) socially accepted behavior

27.Right attitude will lead to (a) high attitude (b) wrong attitude (c) high attitude (d) low attitude

28.Census figure can be used for all the following except (a) knowing a country population size (b) planning for the budget (c) knowing the number of a political party (d) getting aids from international bodies.

29.All these are principle of rule of law except (a) principle of a partiality (b) principle of fair hearing (c) principle of supremacy of the law (d) principle of right to appeal

30.Human right are normally entrenched in the (a) political party manifestos (b) constitution (c) pressure group (d) law report

31.Positive behavior can be encouraged by (a) stealing public funds (b) rigging elections (c) displaying good leadership (d) promoting materialism

32.An official trained purposely to count the number of people during population census is (a) counter (b) countillor (c) demophy (d) demographer

33.One of the consequences of lack of cooperation is (a) conflict (b) oneness(c) understanding (d) progress

34.The act of doing the same thing without changing is called (a) integrity (b) commitment (c) consistency (d) trust.

35.Which of these creates sense of belonging in a team? (a) Sharing of ideas (b)Selfishness (c) Caring for each team member (d) Hiding of information

36.Which of these is not a citizen’s right in Nigeria? (a) Right to life, (b) Right to fair hearing (c) Right to vote (d) Right to infringe other people’s rights

37.Working together to achieve a common goal for the good of everyone is also known as (a) Team work (b) Team spirit (c) Togetherness (d) Cooperation.

38.Which of these is not true about values? (a) they dictate our behavior to others (b) they influence our goals in life (c) they makes us unhappy and unfulfilled (d) they promotes good relationship in the society

39.Right to vote during the election is a (a) civil right (b) voting right (c) democratic right (d) election right

40.Trust is associated with (a) confidence (b) integrity (c) love (d) religion

41.Which of these is not a negative behavior n(a) Bunkering (b) forgery (c) African time mentality (d) Transparency.

42.Dishonesty is manifested through the following except (a) Impersonation (b) Examination malpractice (c) constructively criticizing government (d) Embezzlement of public funds.

43.One of these is a characteristic of honesty (a) Fraudulence (b) Truthfulness (c) Disloyalty (d) Love of money.

44.Which of these is very important for cooperation in the society (a) Selfishness (b) Unity (c) Dishonesty (d) Love of money.

45.Which of these is a form of dishonesty? (a) Fighting in the public (b) Cheating in examination (c) Disobedience to parents. (d) Failure to help others.

46.The rule of law can be strengthened through (a) Independence of judiciary (b) High cost of litigation (c) prolonged prosecution of offenders (d) Immunity clause in the constitution

47.Relationship can end due to all these except (a) Death of partner (b) Separation (c) Divorce (d) Unconditional love.

48.All these are attributes of right attitude to work except (a) punctuality (b) Commitment (c) Regularity (d) Independent of judiciary.

49.All these would help in making the rule of law to work except (a) Fair trial of suspects (b) practice of separation of power (c) Delayed justice (d) Independent of judiciary.

50.All these show lack of modesty except (a) Flamboyant dressing (b) Extravagant life style (c) Love for one in town mansions (d) Simple lifestyle.

51.A follower who obeys the law made by the leader for the good of the society is showing the trait of: (a) Diligence (b) commitment (c) Loyalty (d) Obedience.

52.Which of these is not a method of protecting human rights? (a) Media coverage (b) Protest match (c) Hunger strike (d) Street riots.

53.Which of these indicates the true practice of rule of law in a democratic setting? (a) Independent of the judiciary (b) Violation of human rights (c) Arbitrary arrest of opposition party members (d) Non existence of separation of power.

54.All these are associated with honesty except (a) Fair of God (b) Loyalty (c) Being reliable (d) Misuse of funds.

55.Loving our nation more than other nation is termed (a) Nepotism (b) Patriotism (c) Fraternity (d) Favouritism.

56.One of these is a negative behavior in the society(A)friendship(B)dishonesty(C)giving(D)discipline

57.The ability to do something dangerous or to face pain or opposition without showing fear is(A)contentment(B)discipline(C)courage(D)integrity

57.Democracy originated from(A)Greece(B)USA(C)Ghana(D)Japan

58.The first elected Nigeria president was(A)Nnamdi Azikiwe(B)Tafawa Balewa(C)Obafemi Awolowo(D)Shehu Shagari

60.The two attributes of integrity are(A)hatred and contentment(B)Goodwill and justice(C)principle and integrity(D)probity and honesty.

THEORY.: Answer Only 3 Question

1.State five functions of INEC

B. Outline five importance of free and fair election

2.What is free and fair election?

B. Highlight five criteria for conducting a free and fair election in Nigeria

3.Define community service

B. Highlight five reasons for participating in communal service.

4.What is election?

B. State five functions of election

5.Write briefly on(A)Primary election(B)Bye Election(C)Primary election(D)Indirect election

SECURITY EDUCATION MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: SECURITY EDUCATION Duration: 2HRS Class: JSS 3

1.The major causes of insecurity in Nigeria is(A)Illiteracy(B)unemployment(C)Greediness(D)Over population

2…………… is not an emergency situation(A)Fire outbreak(B)Earth quake(C)Flood(D)Malaria fever

3.Which of the following is not an agency that deal with emergency(A)Police(B)Fire Service(C)Odua People’s Congress(D)Red Cross

4.Crime means(A)Minor offences that cause injury(B)Mistakes that bring injury on others(C)Illegal behaviours punishable by law of the land(D)Behaviours against the tradition of our elders

5.Unlawful killing or taking of life of another person is described as(A)Suicide(B)Kidnapping(C)Murder(D)Vandalization

6.A major security challenge in Nigeria is the(A)Examination malpractices(B)Insurgence in the North East(C)Political crisis(D)Indecent dressing

7.The study of security education is important for these reason except(A)Promotion of peace(B)Inflicting hardship on citizens(C)Prevention of havoc(D)Promotion of national development

8.To prevent crimes,citizens should do the following except(A)Obeying the law(B)Reporting suspicious movement in the day or night(C)Reporting suspected criminals(D)Bribing police not to prosecute criminals

9.All these crimes are very common among youths except(A)Rape(B)Examintion malpractice(C)Weapon smuggling(D)Robbery and stealing

10.An act of intentionally taking another person’s property without permission is called(A)Gang robbery(B)Armed robbery(C)Theft(D)Tapping

11.The illegal duplication of another person’s literary or musical work for commercial purpose is called(A)Piracy(B)Anti-piracy(C)Crime of duplication(D)Literacy piracy

12.Increase in crime rate in a country will(A)Encourage more foreign investors(B)Boost the level of economic activities(C)Drive away foreign investors(D)Increase government revenue

13.The security agency that fights drug trafficking in Nigeria(A)NDLEA(B)NAFDAC(C)SSS(D)DSS

14.All these are dangers or effects of pipeline vandalization except(A)Scarcity of petroleum products(C)Economic wastes(C)Water pollution(D)Increase in government revenue

15.All these are true except(A)All crimes carry different punishment(B)All crimes carry the same punishment(C)Not all criminals go to jail(D)Police and criminals are not friends

16.Security agents include all these except(A)A naval officer(B)A lawyer(C)A police officer(D)An army

17.Financial crimes in Nigeria are handled by(A)Chief Justice of the Federation(B)Governor of the Central Bank(C)Federal ministry of finance(D)Economic and financial crimes commission

18.One of these is a crime against morality or victimless crime(A)Prostitution(B)Armed robbery(C)Arson(D)Theft

19.Which of these has the tendency to commit crimes?(A)Educated youths(B)Employed youths(C)Uneducated youths(D)Youths on scholarship abroad

20.Professionals specially trained to maintain law and order, protect life and property are called(A)The Police(B)Security agents(C)State Security Service(D)The military

21.When people in a community are security conscious one of these will likely happen(A)Increase in sale guns(B)Reduction in crime rate(C)Increase in crime rate(D)Increase in number of armed robbers

22.Electoral crime include all these except(A)Rigging(B)Election result manipulation(C)Ballot snatching(D)Failure to vote

23.Which of these regions in Nigeria was majorly affected by Boko-Haram activities?(A)North West(B)South West(C)North Central(D)North East

24.Which of these is not a good crime prevention strategy(A)Installation of alarm in a vehicle(B)Building of fence around a house(C)Leaving your house key with a stranger(D)Installation of security cameras in a house

25.The immediate intervention of the following always needed if there is a road accident except(A)The police(B)National Emergency Management Agency(C)FRSC(D)The Nigeria Navy

26.Any fire outbreak at home is called(A)Heat wave(B)Wild fire(C)Home fire outbreak(D)Hurricane

27.An emergency situation cannot cause(A)Loss of live(B)Broken limbs(C)Flood(D)Cholera

28…………. is not an ideal way of responding to emergency situations in school(A)Remain calm(B)Remove yourself from danger(C)Help others(D)Get first aid

29.The recent Fulani herdsmen killings is rampant in these states except(A)Benue(B)Plateau(C)Kogi(D)Kwara

30.To ensure security of lives and properties,the citizens should(A)Alert security agencies to any suspicious movement(B)Citizens should assist the police in checking crime(C)Citizens should engage in bribing security agencies(D)Citizens should volunteer to protect their community

31.A civic disorder characterized by unrest and killing is(A)Vandalism(B)Riot(C)Arson(D)Felony

32………….. is not an environmental emergency(A)Fire(B)Water pollution(C)Oil spillage(D)Heart attack

33.The abduction of Dapchi school girls was carried out in(A)Yobe state(B)Kogi state(C)Borno state(D)Benue state

34.IDP means(A)Internally Displaced Product(B)Internally Displaced Person(C)Internally Discovered Person(D)Internally Discovered group

35.In case of violence in school,you must do the following except(A)Stay calm(B)Try to fight back(C)Avoid yelling or shouting(D)Have limited eye contact

36.The current Inspector General of Police in Nigeria is Inspector(A)Adamu Abubakar(B)Abdulrahman Jubril(C)Dino Melaye(D)Idris Abubakar

37.The number one security officer in a state is(A)Governor(B)commissioner of Police(C)Inspector General of Police(C)Minister of police(D)President

38……….. is caused by heavy rain for several hours(A)Chemical accident(B)Flood(C)Drought(D)Earthquake

39.The best form of ensuring security in the community is(A)Adoption of neighbourhood watch(B)Increase police salary(C)Educating the security agents(D)Forming of vigilante group

40.IDP camp in Nigeria is located in this state of Nigeria except in(A)Borno(B)Yobe(C)Kogi(D)Adamawa

ATTEMPT ONLY TWO QUESTIONS

1.What is national security? B. Explain two types of crime

C. State four effects of crime on national security

2.What is pipeline vandalism? B. State five causes of pipeline vandalism

C. Highlight three effects of pipeline vandalism

3.Define kidnapping

B. State four ways of curbing kidnapping in Nigeria

C. Highlight four causes of kidnapping in Nigeria

4.What is drug trafficking?

B. State five reasons for drug trafficking

C. Highlight three ways of curbing drug trafficking

**AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS*3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE

CLASS: JSS 3

TIME: 2 HRS

1. The science that deals with the study of crops and field management is called:

(a) agronomy (b) botany (c) entomology (d) horticulture

(e) Pathology

2. Which of the following is a dicotyledonous plant? (a) Cassava (b) pineapple (c) rice

(d) sisal (e) sugarcane

3. The most limiting factor in agricultural production in Nigeria is. (a) Capital (b) Farm inputs (c) farm machinery (d) labour (e) land

4. Mechanized land clearing is done by (a) bush burning (b) caterpillar

(c) Cutlass (d) grader (e) plough

5. An advantage of commercial agriculture is that it (a) requires small space

(b) Requires skilled labour (c) produces high returns (d) involves low capital

(e) All of the above

6. The green revolution is an example of government agricultural (a) extension (b) policy (c) programme (d) regulation (e) research

7. The Nigerian land use Act of 1978 puts the right ownership of land on the

(a) Governor of a state (b) head of the family (c) head of the society

(d) President of the farmers co-operative (e) traditional rulers

8. Which of the following crops produces latex? (a) Mango (b) Rubber (c) Citrus (d) Cassava (e) Sisal

9. The main reason for establishing game reserves is to prevent wild-life from (a) being poached (b) being hunted periodically (c) attacking tourists

(d) Becoming extinct (e) none of the above

10. The biotic factor which derives much benefit from livestock and reduces productivity is a (a) predator (b) parasite (c) pathogen (d) microbe

(e) Temperature

11. Which of the following groups of crops grow best in the savanna Zone of West Africa (a) cotton, millet and groundnut (b) cocoa, kola and oilpalm (c) cotton, cocoa and guinea corn (d) banana, rubber and millet (e) shea butter, cocoa, millet

12. The different between subsidy and loan is that subsidy (a) is a short term credit while loan is a long term credit (b) is a medium term credit while loan is a short term credit (c) requires a collateral while a loan does not (d) is not refundable (e) all of the above

13. Which of the following groups comprises oily crops? (a) Groundnut, jute and cotton (b) Melon, coconut and sisalhemp (c) Coconut, cotton and sunflower

(d) Sunflower, rubber and jute (e) Oilpalm, sunflower and millet

14. Pests of crops that feed by piercing and sucking include the following EXCEPT: (a) stem borers (b) aphids (c) cocoa mirids (d) cotton stainer (e) cassava mealy bug

15. Which of these best describes land in agriculture? (a) Free gift of nature

(b) Increase value with increase in population (c) permanently in place

(d) Solid part of the earth’s crust (e) very important factor of production

16. Which of the following is not a role of government in agricultural production? (a) provision of labour (b) provision of subsidies (c) building of storage facilities (d) provision of loans and credits (e) provision of loans

17. Peasant farmers sell almost all their produce immediately after harvesting because (a) stored produce lose their quality (b) stored produce would be lost to pests (c) the prices offered for stored produce are low (d) the produce are perishable (e) there are inadequate storage facilities

18. Which of the following is NOT an agricultural development programme in Nigeria? (a) Agricultural Development Project (b) Green Revolution

(c) National Development for All (d) Operation Feed the Nation (e) River Basin Development Authority

19. The major aim of government’s agricultural programmes in Nigeria include the following EXCEPT that it (a) encourages cash crop production (b) ensures quality control and standards (c) fixes prices of agricultural commodities

(d) Increases food production (e) increases the gross domestic product

20. Fibre can be obtained from the following EXCEPT (a) cotton (b) jute (c) kapok (d) kenaf (e) sheabutter

21. Wastage of agricultural products during harvesting period is due to inadequate (a) agricultural education and extension (b) agricultural financing (c) implementation of government policies on agriculture (d) storage and processing facilities (e) transport facilities

22. Which of the following systems of farming requires an intensive use of fertilizers? (a) Bush burning (b) Crop rotation (c) Mixed farming

(d) Monocropping (e) Shifting cultivation

23. The provision of farm inputs to farmers by the government can best be described as (a) capital (b) credit (c) gift (d) loan (e) subsidy

24. Most agricultural policies do NOT benefit rural communities because (a) oof lack of foreign exchange to import the required expertise (b) of poor implementation (c) there are inadequate supply of electricity (d) they aim at benefiting the national economy (e) they are formulated by non-practising farmers

25. The limiting climatic factor to agricultural production in Nigeria is

(a) Humidity (b) rainfall distribution (c) soil type (d) temperature (e) wind

26. The nutrient used mainly for energy production is (a) carbohydrate

(b) Carotene (c) mineral (d) protein (e) vitamin

27. Which of these crops is wind pollinated? (a) Cassava (b) Cocoa (c) Coffee

(d) Maize (e) Rubber

28. Which of the following crops is a raw material for the production of chocolate? (a) Avocado pear (b) Banana (c) Cocoa (d) Coffee (e) Kolanut

29. Which of the following is a day-neutral crop? (a) Cocoa (b) Coffee (c) Maize

(d) Millet (e) Tomato

30. The following are fib e crops EXCEPT (a) cotton (b) hemp (c) jute (d) rubber (e) sisal

31. Which of the following is NOT a solution to problems of local farmers?

(a) Rehabilitation of bad roads (b) Subsidizing crude implements (c) Practising improved farming methods (d) Providing credit facilities by governments

32. The main motive of the farmer in commercial agriculture is to (a) maximize profit (b) produce rare crop varieties (c) produce for family consumption

(d) Increase risk

33. The land tenure system which leads to land fragmentation is (a) freehold

(b) Inheritance (c) pledging (d) gift

34. Subsistence farming is parctised in West Africa on land mostly acquired through (a) pledge (b) donation (c) inheritance (d) purchase

35. The roles of government in the development of agriculture in Nigeria include the following EXCEPT (a) reorganization of the rural communities

(b) Provision of extension service (c) provision of feeder roads

(d) Rehabilitation of feeder roads

36. The main reason for governments enforcement of efficient quarantine laws is to (a) check the destruction of unproductive animals (b) attract school leavers into agriculture (c) give grants to researchers for agricultural problems

(d) Check and control the inflow of animals and crops

37. The most important objectives of the farm settlement scheme is to (a) supply farm tools to farmers (b) provide subsidy for small scale farmers

(c) Demonstrate that farming can be profitable business (d) mechanise agriculture

38. In which of the following is land used for agricultural purposes? (a) Forage production (b) Recreation (c) Mining (d) Road construction

39. Which of the following climatic factor is primarily necessary for photosynthesis in crop plants? (a) Wind (b) Light (c) Rainfall (d) Temperature

40. An example of a biotic factor affecting crop or animal production is

(a) Predator (b) soil texture (c) soil structure (d) light

THEORY

INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ONLY THREE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1a. Define Agricultural Science

b. Enumerate five important of Agriculture

c. State and explain Relationship between Industry and Agriculture

2a. Define the term Land Tenure System

b. Discuss briefly Land Use Decree

c. In a tabular form, state six differences between subsistence and commercial agric

3a. State five agricultural programs initiated in Nigeria

b. Outline five ways by which non-government al organizations have contributed to the development of agriculture in Nigeria

c. Suggest two possible solutions to the problem of poor marketing channel

4a. Define Land

b. Enumerate five uses of Land for agricultural purpose

c State five factors affecting Land availability

5a. State five roles of science and technology in agriculture provision

b. Mention one industry that uses each of the following agricultural produce as raw material

i Cocoa ii. Rubber iii. Cotton iv. Groundnut v. Cassava

c. Suggest two possible solutions to the problem of inadequate finance

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 2 HRS

1. The removal of excess water from the sub-soil is known as: (a) irrigation (b) drainage (c) evaporation (d) dehydration (e) hydration

2. The best source of farm power for agricultural production is (a) human power (b) animal power (c) mechanical power (d) solar power (e) electrical power

3. The greatest disadvantage of using a bulldozer in land clearing is that it (a) removes the fertile top soil along with the vegetation (b) makes the soil loose its texture (c) allows the fast growth of weeds after clearing (d) increases the incidence of pests (e) all of the above

4. Which of the following equipment is not used in farm surveying? (a) Gunters chain

(b) Measuring tape (c) Ranging pole (d) Pick axe (e) Theodolite

5. Farm surveying is important because it determines (a) soil fertility (b) size of farm land

(c) Yield of crops (d) types of implements to use (e) water level of the soil

6. If a crop is planted at a spacing of 100cm × 50cm, calculate the plant population required for a hectare of farm land. (a) 200 (b) 5, 000 (c) 20, 000 (d) 15, 200

7. A disadvantage of vegetatively propagated crops is that they (a) do not mature on time

(b) are less resistant (c) do not withstand harsh conditions (d) lodges very readily (e) B and D

8. The signs of heat in animals include the following EXCEPT (a) red and swollen vulva

(b) Restlessness and nervousness (c) attempting to mount other animals (d) increased appetite (e) mucous discharge from the vulva

9. Cows should not be allowed to eat plenty of young fresh pasture because they will

(a) develop anthrax (b) develop bloat (c) refuse to eat concentrate (d) become infested with worms (e) A and B

10. The recommended spacing for oil palm cultivation is (a) 9m triangular (b) 9m × 9m (c) 12m × 12m (d) 12m triangular (e) A and B

11. The average gestation period of a sow is ______ days (a) 32 (b) 114 (c) 150 (d) 153 (e) 290

12. Whish of these is a secondary tillage implement? (a) Chisel plough (b) Disc plough

(c) Mould board plough (e) Planters

13. The following are examples of field machine EXPECT: (a) bulldozer (b) combined harvester (c) milking machine (d) planter (e) sprayer

14. High temperature and pressure convert sand stone to (a) basalt (b) quartzile (c) coal

(d) Limestone (e) biotite

15. Streak diseases of maize is caused by (a) virus (b) nematode (c) fungus (d) bacterium

(e) protozoan

16. In the carbon cycle, atmospheric carbon (iv) oxide is replenished by (a) respiration

(b) transpiration (c) lightning (d) dentrification (e) A and C

17. The solidification of rock materials from a molten mass results in the formation of (a) coal (b) gneiss (c) granite (d) marble (e) shale

18. The following are agents of rock weathering in the tropics EXCEPT (a) carbonation

(b) glaciations (c) hydration (d) oxidation (e) temperature change

19. Which of the following statements describes soil most appropriately? It is (a) composed of fine stones and silt (b) the major part of the ground (c) the softest part of the earth (d) the thin layer of the earth on which plants grow (e) the topmost cover of the earth’s surface

20. The acidity of a soil can be corrected by (a) conservation (b) drainage (c) flocculation

(d) Irrigation (e) liming

21. Agricultural soils which are light and allow moisture to pass through very easily are generally (a) clayey (b) loamy (c) muddy (d) sandy (e) silt

22. Microscopic worms living mainly in the soil are (a) algae (b) bacteria (c) fungi

(d) Nematodes (e) viruses

23. Which of the following is NOT a macro-nutrient? (a) Calcium (b) Iron (c) Magnesium

(d) Phosphorus (e) Potassium

24. Nitrogen is absorbed by plants in the form of (a) ammonia (b) nitrates (c) nitrites

(d) Nitrogen dioxide (e) nitrogen oxide

25. The gradual washing away of small particles of the surface soil is called (a) denudation

(b) Drainage (c) erosion (d) intrusion (e) inundation

26. Which of the following is an advantage of irrigation? (a) Accumulates salt (b) Aids weed dispersal (c) Breeds vectors and diseases (d) Helps to build up pest (e) Stabilizes farm economy

27. The removal of excess water from the soil surface is referred to as (a) drainage

(b) Evapotranspiration (c) hydration (d) irrigation (e) transpiration

28. The plough is used on the farm for (a) stumping and removing weeds (b) scraping and throwing up the soil (c) scraping and lumping soil particles together (d) harvesting forage (e) digging up and turning over the soil

29. Which of the following farm tools can best be used to harvest groundnuts? (a) Cutlass

(b) Go-to-hell (c) Hoe (d) Pick axe (e) Spade

30. The survey equipment used in determining the horizontal angles between a references medium and a desirable point is the (a) cross staff (b) gunter’s chain (c) measuring tape

(d) Ranging pole (e) theodolite

31. Farm structures help the farmer to achieve the following aims EXCEPT (a) improving farm management (b) increasing farm production (c) increasing the work of farm attendants

(d) Maximizing farm profit (e) reducing wastage of farm produce

32. Which of the following is NOT a permanent crop? (a) Cocoa (b) Kolanut (c) Mango (d) Oil palm (e) Pineapple

33. The term ‘fallowing’ in agriculture means (a) allowing cattle to graze among crops

(b) Cropping the land with cash crops only (c) leaving the land without a crop throughout the cropping season (d) occupying all the land with crops (e) rotation of crops in a definite order

34. Which of the following farm operations does NOT use electricity as a source of power?

(a) Grinding (b) Harvesting (c) Milking (d) Miling (e) Shelling

35. Rocks formed from molten magma are known as (a) igneous (b) metamorphic

(c) sandstone (d) schist (e) sedimentary

36. Which of the following soil types contains particles of diameter size between 0.02mm-2.0mm? (a) Clay (b) Gravel (c) Sand (d) silt (e) stone

37. Which of the following is the best agent of organic matter decomposition in the process of soil formation? (a) Algae (b) Bacteria (c) Fungi (d) Liverworts (e) Mosses

38. Nitrogen is supplied by rhizobium to leguminous plants by (a) changing mineral salts to ammonia (b) decomposing plant remains (c) fixing atmospheric nitrogen (d) incorporating urea into the soil (e) increasing soil pH value

39. Which of the following is NOT an importance of irrigation? (a) Cools the soil and the atmosphere (b) Helps to soften the soil (c) Makes early planting possible (d) One crop can be cultivated twice in a year (e) Spreads diseases and pests

40. The following can be used to drain soil EXCEPT (a) channels (b) ditches (c) gutters

(d) porous pipes (e) sprinklers

41. Which of the following is NOT associated with surface irrigation? (a) Check flooding

(b) Mole drain (c) Natural flooding (d) Sprinklers irrigation (e) Tile

42. In underground drainage (a) ditches are constructed to remove excess water (b) ditches are dug from a source of water to the farmland (c) furrows in which water collects are made (d) water is pumped through underground perforated pipes to crops (e) Water seeps into the tiles to reach an outlet where water is disposed

43. Which of these crops is best propagated by budding? (a) Citrus (b) Ginger (c) Pineapple

(d) Sugar cane (e) Yam

44. The caustic organism of maize rust is (a) bacterium (b) fungus (c) nematode (d) protozoan (e) virus

45. The gestation period of a cow is approximately (a) 483days (b) 423days (c) 383days

(d) 283days (e) 183days

46. Which of the following confers natural immunity on the young animals? (a) Administration of antibiotics (b) Administration of drugs (c) Feeding with colostrums (d) Sanitation of the animal’s house (e) Vaccination of the young

47. Which of the following farm animal’s skin can be used for leather production? (a) Cattle (b) Duck (c) Fowl (d) Pig (e) Sheep

48. Which of the following factors is considered the least important for the successful incubation of eggs? (a) Light (b) Relative humidity (c) Temperature (d) Turning of eggs

(e) Ventilation

49. When a cockerel is castrated it is called (a) broiler (b) capon (c) cock (d) layer (e) pullet

50. Which of the following is a micro element? (a) Calcium (b) Sulphur (c) Phosphorus

(d) Manganese

THEORY

INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ONLY THREE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1a. Define Farm Surveying b. Describe the following surveying equipment

i Ranging pole ii Gunter’s chain

iii Prismatic compass iv Theodolite

c. Outline six factors to be considered in selecting a site for a farmstead

2a. Define Soil b. List four components of soil

c. State five characteristics of each of these (a) Sandy (b) Clay (c) Loamy

3a. State four tractor-couples implements and discuss the uses of two of the implements

b. Write short notes on each of the following (a) Tractors, (b) Incubators (c) Sprayers

c. Define Irrigation

4a. Define Nitrogen Cycle b. Draw the Nitrogen Cycle

c. Explain three functions of Nitrogen

5a. State five macro element and five microelement

b. List five environmental factors affecting agricultural production in Nigeria

c. Explain five ways in which rainfall affects agric production

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE CLASS: SS 3 TIME: 2 HRS

1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of subsistence Agriculture? (a) Few farmers usually practice it (b) It is practiced where capital is not readily available (c) The farmer does not normally plant cash crops (d) The farmer grows arable crops to feed self and family (e) There is no surplus produce for sale in the market

2. The Green revolution is an example f government agricultural (a) extension (b) policy (c) programme (d) regulation (e) research

3. The communal land tenure is a system in which (a) a farmer uses all the land in a community to secure loan (b) members of a community use the same land when needed (c) members of the community are assigned permanent titles to the land (d) the head of a community sells or uses the land as desired (e) the land belongs to the head of the community

4. When a piece of land is leased to a farmer, the land is said to be (a) allocated on rent (b) given as a gift (c) given as subsidy (d) inherited (e) purchased on loan

5. The Nigerian Land Use Act of 1978 puts the right ownership of land on the (a) governor of a state (b) head of the family (c) head of the society (d) president of the farmers’ cooperative (e) traditional rulers

Use the diagram to answer questions 6 to 8

IV V

III II I

6. On which of the labelled parts can more weight be added to increase soil penetration by the implement? (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV (e) V

7. The part that is kept in touch with the rear end during operation is labelled (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV (e) V

8. Which of the labelled structures carries out the function of the share, coulter and mould board in a mould board plough? (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV (e) V

9. 4FeO + O₂ 2Fe₂O₃

The above equation is chemically called (a) carbonation (b) hydration (c) hydrolysis (d) reduction (e) oxidation

10. Fe2O₃ + 3H₂ O Fe₂ O₃.3H₂ O

In this chemical reaction, haematite is hydrated into (a) dolomite (b) iron (iv) oxide (c) lime stone (d) limonite (e) mica

11. Which of these is a secondary rock mineral? (a) Biotite (b) Orthoclase (c) Pyroxene (d) Shale (e) Sodium oxide

12. What is the size fraction of coarse sand? (a) Less than 0.002mm (b) 0.002-0.02mm (c) 0.02-0.2mm (d) 0.2mm (e) Greater than 2.0mm

13. The soil structure in which aggregates are arranged like a pillar is ____ structure (a) blocky (b) crumby (c) granular (d) platy (e) prismatic

14. The sequential arrangement f various sizes and groups of individual soil grains in a mass of soil from top to bottom is (a) clay, silt,, fine sand, coarse sand, fine gravel, gravel and stone (b) fine gravel, coarse sand, fine sand, silt, clay, stone and gravel (c) fine sand, silt, clay, gravel, coarse sand, fine gravel, and stone (d) silt, clay, stone, coarse sand, fine sand, gravel and fine gravel (e) stone, gravel, fine gravel, coarse sand, fine sand, silt and clay

15. Which of the following is NOT correct about forestry land? (a) Disputed land (b) Established in areas of sparse population (c) Established where the rate of erosion is low (d) May be plain and hilly (e) Must not be too fertile

16. All these are importance of wild life EXCEPT the provision of (a) food (b) hides and skin (c) revenue (d) shelter (e) tourist attraction

17. Silviculture means (a) art of planting crops and raising of flowers (b) art of planting, tending and managing forests (c) community of trees, associated plants and animals (d) replanting of a forest land after felling (e) scientific management of economic tree plants

18. Which of these trees can be regarded as tropical rainforest specie? (a) Cassia (b) Date palm (c) Ebony (d) Neem (e) Shear butter

19. Deforestation increases the following EXCEPT (a) desert encroachment (b) leaching of plant nutrients (c) loss of organic matter (d) moisture retention (e) soil erosion

20. To ensure continuous supply of forest products, the following forest management techniques are important EXCEPT (a) afforestation (b) deforestation (c) fallowing (d) regeneration (e) taungya system

21. Which of these is NOT a factor affecting land availability and use? (a) Climate (b) Cultural practices (c) Game reerve (d) Land tenure system (e) Soil type

22. A farm-stead refers to (a) a home and production centre (b) a storage centre for farm products (c) the design and construction of farm (e) the relative size and plan of farm

23. Which of these factors greatly determines the type of vegetation prevalent in Nigeria? (a) Rainfall (b) Sunshine (c) Temperature (d) Topography (e) Wind

24. The Nigeria vegetation belts can be classified into ____ and ___ zones (a) forest, savannah (b) guinea savannah, sudan savannah (c) mangrove swamp, fresh water swamp (d) rainforest, mangrove forest (e) sahel savannah, sudan savannah

25. Which of these statements is NOT true about the influence of forests on environment? (a) Cause local rainfall (b) Expose the soil to erosion by rain drops (c) Increase soil fertility (d) Purify the air (e) Reduce evaporation of soil water

26. The taungya farming system involves combining (a) arable cropping with forest management (b) crop production with animal rearing (c) fish management with forest management (d) forest management and animal rearing (e) livestock farming with forest management

27. The system of combining pasture with crop production in alternation is called (a) intercropping (b) interplanting (c) ley farming (d) mixed farming (e) pastoral farming

28. The system of planting of a long-season crop first, then followed by a short season crop on the same farm but the short season crop is harvested first is called (a) intercropping (b) interplanting (c) mixed cropping (d) multiple cropping (e) rotational cropping

29. The chemical used to control damping –off is (a) acaricide (b) fungiside (c) insecticide (d) nematicide (e) rodenticide

30. Stemborer and leaf hopper are pests of (a) cowpea (b) groundnut (c) maize (d) rubber (e) yam

31. Cercospera leaf spot is a disease of (a) citrus (b) cocoa (c) groundnuts (d) maize (e) yam

32. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of rosette disease? (a) Internode becomes shortened (b) Leaves curl (c) Leaves turn yellow (d) Low yield (e) Pod becomes toxic

33. Fusarium oxysporium causes ______ disease. (a) Bacterial blight (b) bacterial wilt (c) fusarium blight (d) root knot (e) root rot

34. The brown spots symptom commonly associated with fungal diseases of crops can best be observed on (a) flowers (b) fruits (c) internodes (d) leaves (e) stems

35. The infectious viral disease of poultry is called (a) aspergilosis (b) coccidiosis (c) fowl cholera (d) gunboro (e) Newcastle disease

36. A maintenance operation necessary for availability of fish in a fish pond is (a) construction of spill way (b) deweeding (c) impoundment of pond (d) pond inoculation (e) stocking of pond

37. A young rabbit is called (a) buck (b) dam (c) doe (d) kitten (e) sire

38 The most glandular portion of the ruminant stomach where enzymatic digestion takes place is the (a) abomasums (b) oesophagus (c) omasum (d) rectum (e) reticulum

39. In the ruminant stomach, the portion where most of the microbial digestion takes place is the (a) abomasums (b) oesophagus (c) omasum (d) reticulum (e) rumen

40. The hormone responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics and libido in male animal is (a) oestrogen (b) oxytocin (c) progesterone (d) relaxing (e) testosterone

41. A mature female pig that has produced offspring at least once is called (a) doe (b) ewe (c) gilt (d) lamb (e) mare

42. The process of choosing animals so that they can be used to produce future offspring is termed (a) culling (b) dissemination (c) identification (d) introduction (e) selection

43. A castrated male sheep is known as (a) castrate (b) lamb (c) ram (d) steer (e) wether

44. The following are examples of bony fishes EXCEPT (a) carp (b) herring (c) perches (d) salmon (e) shark

45. Which of these is NOT a method of harvesting fish? (a) Draining of ponds (b) Drenching (c) Electrofishing (d) Impalling (e) Trapping

46. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for fish pond water? (a) Colourless appearance (b) Hot temperature (c) pH of 7 9 (d) Pollution free (e) slightly alkaline

47. Mating of animals with close genetic relationship is termed (a) crossbreeding (b) inbreeding (c) line breeding (d) out breeding (e) out crossimh

48. The gestation period of a sow is _________ days (a) 32 (b) 114 (c) 150 (d) 153 (e) 290

49. The common space into which faecal and unrinogenital tubes open in poultry birds is called (a) anus (b) cloaca (c) infundibulum (d) return (e) vagina

50. Chalaza is formed in the (a) infundibulum (b) isthmus (c) magnum (d) ovary (e) vagina

51. Vitamin E deficiency may lead to (a) dwarfism (b) goiter (c) infertility (d) perosis

(e) rickets

52. Which of the following is not a digestive enzymes? (a) Lactase (b) Maltase (c) Peptidase

(d) prolactin (e) sucrose

53. A major advantage of agricultural loan is that (a) capital is made available to farmers

(b) it enhances the social status of the farmers (c) it is easy to obtain (d) it is interest free (e) repayment takes many years

54. Which of the following is not a reason for keeping livestock records? They

(a) are used for determing the number of consumers

(b) are used for determing the profitability of the enterprise

(c) are used to determine when to apply vaccines

(d) can be used for rational agricultural plans

(e) provide information which can be used to correct management lapses

55. The following are functions of a farm manager except (a) controlling farm workers

(b) co ordinating the farm activities (c) organizing sales of farm products

(d) planning farm programme of work (e) planting of crops and vegetable

56. When granting loans to farmers, the credit officer should consider mostly the ___________ of the farmer (a) age (b) consumption needs (c) experience (d) family size

(e) production and essential needs

57. The different between total assets and total liabilities of a farm enterprises within a specified period before taxation is known as (a) current asset (b) gross profit (c) liability (d) net profit (e) networth

58. Which of the following is the correct step in extension teaching? (a) attention interest Desire conviction action satisfaction (b) attention interest conviction desire action satisfaction (c) interest attention desire Conviction action satisfaction (d) desire interest attention conviction Action satisfaction ( e) conviction desire interest attention action Satisfation

59. Agricultural extension programme would succeed in disseminating new ideas to farmers except if only the programme (a) involve the support of highly trained extension specialists (b) involves the people for which the programme is planned (c) is based on planned agricultural programmes (d) is based on research tested on local condition (e) is not kept flexible to contemporary technology

60. The fundamental objective of agricultural extension is to improve the efficiency of farmers by (a) enforcing modern techniques of farming on them (b) giving them formal education in farming (c) giving them loan every year (d) persuading them to apply improved methods in farming (e) training them to become extension agents

SECTION B: THEORY

INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ONLY THREE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1a. List six advantages of cooperative societies

b. Enumerate four other sources of agricultural financing apart from banks and cooperative societies

c. List four factors of agricultural production

2a. What is “farm subsidy”?

b. Enumerate six objectives of agricultural extension service

c. List five agencies involved in agricultural extension programmes in Nigeria

d. Name five factors affecting the adoption of new farming ideas and techniques

3a. Define the term land tenure system and give four examples

b. Discuss briefly land use decree

ii State two (2) advantages and two (2) disadvantages of the decree

4. Explain briefly four (4) of the following terms in animal production

a oestrous cycle b heat period c gestation period

d parturition e colostrums

5. Copy and complete this table:

S/N	Name of disease	Crop affected	Pathogen	Symptoms	Prevention / control
1	Cassava mosaic
2	Black pod
3	Streak
4	Rosette disease

6a. What is crop improvement?

i State six advantages of improved crop varieties over unimproved ones

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

AGRIC SCIENCE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR JSS3 THIRD TERM

SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE CLASS: JSS 3 TIME: 2 HRS

SECTION A- OBJECTIVES

1. Which of these will not affect the buying of rice? (a) personal (b) religion (c) social (d) cultural

2. _____ is a disease causing organism (a) pathogen (b) vector (c) endo-parasie (d) tick

3. The aim of advertisement is to ______ (a) increase the cost of production (b) create confusion in the mind of consumer (c) lead to the loss of company product (d) increase the sales of goods

4. A farm structure where animals are slaughtered and butchered is known as ___ (a) abattoir (b) slaughter slap (c) raised platform (d) animal house

5. The price of agricultural products will be affected by the following EXCEPT ____ (a) transportation cost (b) seasonality of product (c) advertisement of product (d) perish ability of the product

6. When products are in direct contact with packaging, it is a _______ packaging. (a) primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) universal

7. All these are agricultural products EXCEPT ____ (a) Kenaf (b) cotton (c) rubber (d) plastic

8. The removal of surplus seedling from area sown with seed is ____ (a) mulching (b) supplying (c) thinning (d) harvesting

9. The reproductive part of a plant is ____ (a) leaf (b) seed (c) stem (c) flower

10. The following are farm structures EXCEPT _____ (a) silo (b) crib (c) rhombus (d) weigh bridge

11. Which of these animals serve as means of transportation? (a) pig (b) goat (c) donkey (d) sheep

12. The removal of surplus seedling from area sown with seed is _____ (a) mulching (b) supplying (c) thinning (d) harvesting

13. It has parallel vein leaf, fibrous root; these are the characteristics of ____ plant. (a) Monocotyledon (c) cocoa (d) orange

14. The reproductive part of a plant is ____ (a) leaf (b) seed (c) stem (d) flower

15. The following are farm structures EXCEPT _____ (a) silo (b) crib (c) rhombus (d) weigh

16. Monocotyledonous crops have the following characteristics EXCEPT _________ (a) one seed leaf (b) fibrous root (c) tap root (d) narrow leaf

17. ____ is the process by which green plants manufacture their food (a0 pollination (b) photosynthesis (c) ovulation (d) respiration

18. Which of the following farm produce is used in the clothing industry? (a) Kenaf (b) cotton (c) sisals (d) jute

19. Stomachs of ruminant animals are divided into ___ chambers (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2

20. The process of making people aware of the available agricultural products through radio, television and newspaper is ___________ (a) broadcasting (b) announcement (c) advertisement (d) announcer

21. The process of deliberately keeping or culturing bees is known as ____________ (a) bumble bees (b) horticulture (c) ranching (d) apiculture

22. Which of the following can damage farm structure constructed with woods? (a) earthworm (b) termites (c) Eel worm (d) cotton strainers

23. All building and structures in the farms are collectively called ____ (a) farm structure (b) livestock building (c) farms stead (d) farm building

24. Hunting of animals, gathering of fruits are traced back to ________ (a) nomads (b) early men (c) ancestor (d) Oyo empire

25. _____ and _____ are types of agriculture (a) horticulture and monoculture (b) subsistence and commercial (c) floriculture and silviculture (d) horticulture and animal husbandry

26. A pepper plant that grows in a yam plot is regarded as a ____ (a) crop (b) flower (c) weed (d) vegetables

27. Cotton is an example of ___ crop (a) beverages (b) cereal (c) fibre (d) latex

28. Which of the following animals is an example of succulent feed? (a) bone meal (b) fish meal (c) hay (d) silage

29. Which of the following animals does not feed on hay (a) cattle (b) goat (c) horse (d) poultry

30. The separation of agricultural produce into various sizes and qualities is referred to as ____ (a) assembling (b) bulking (c) grading (d) packaging

31. Which of the following is not characteristics of paper (a) it is easily torn (b) it offers no barriers to water (c) it is a waste from pulpwood (d) it is flexible

32. Live animals need the following for transportation except (a) Open-top lorry (b) Keepers to accompany them (c) feed bon deck (d) stacking

33. Constraints to adequate packaging include the following except (a) cost (b) choice of materials (c) lack of knowledge about materials (d) distance to market

34. The slatted wooden boxes for fruits allow for (a) free circulation air (b) water to enter the container (c) recycled (d) burnt

35. The knowledge of packaging materials is essential because each product to be packsged has its own (a) direction (b) shape (c) properties (d) size

36. Which of the following is not an objective of pricing? (a) to achieve profitability (b) to find out if consumers will be willing to pay that price (c) to support market position of the producer (d) to make the market unstable

37. An increase in quantity demanded results in (a) a decrease in price (b) an increase in price (c) equilibrium price (d) a supply price

38. Which of the following statements does not refer to advertisement (a0 it is a form of marketing communication (b) it is a promotion for agricultural product (c) it is a mean of publicizing the success of a farm enterprises (d) a supply price

39. The inability of a farmer to store his products during period of high production results in (a) low prices (b) high prices (c) changes in price (d) prices forcast

40. Cost of production is a form of ___ in producing a commodity (a) sales ( b) investment n(c) distribution n(d) market

41. The perception most consumers about price-quality relationship is that a relatively high price is a sign of ______ (a) good quality (b) bad quality (c) average quality (d) half baked quality

42. Prices of agricultural products can be expressed in the following ways except (a) currency (b) weight (c) quality (d) degrees

43. For farmers to make profit, the cost of production must be (a) low (b) high (c) moderate (d) beneficial

44. Trays could be made of the following except (a) plastic (b) metal (c) cardboards (d) polyethylene

45. Fibres are materials needed from the following products except (a) jute raffia (b) sisal (c) metal

SECTION B

Answer 4 questions from this section

1. What is Agricultural Science 5mks

b. List and explain five (5) importance of agriculture 5mks

2. Explain the following: (i) packaging (ii) branding 6mks

b. List and explain two advantages of packaging 2mks

c. Explain two disadvantages of branding 2mks

3. What is advertising? 4mks

b. State and explain three form of advertising 6mks

4. List five (5) methods of advertising 5mks

b. What is pricing 5mks

5. State and explain four (4) reasons for packaging 5mks

b. List and explain five (5) factors of price of agricultural products 5mks

**HOME ECONOMICS MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: HOME ECONOMICS Duration: 1HR 30mins Class: JSS 3

Answer all questions in sections A and B, then answer just 3 questions in section C

1. The fabric that absorbs moisture easily is (a) linen (b) viscose (c) cotton (d) acetate

2. Which of the following is a complete form of rest? (a) exercise (b) rest (c) sleep (d) standing

3. Baking, grilling and roasting is cooking by _____ heat (a) moist (b) shallow (c) fried (d) dry

4. Cooking food by heat in an enclosed space is _____ (a) steaming (b) baking (c) frying (d) boiling

5. _____ and _____ is cure for fatigue (a) reading, sewing (b) rest, sleep (c) exercise, jogging (d) singing, reading

6. The simplest form of seam is _____ (a) French seam (b) lapped seam (c) overlaid seam (d) open seam

7. Whenever the skin is opened, torn or punctured by a sharp object, the result is _____ (a) puncture (b) bite (c) cut (d) burn

8. In _____ meal service, the guests help themselves with the food (a) tray (b) plate (c) family- style (d) buffet

9. ______ can be made into a refreshing and nutritious drink (a) white beans (b) soya beans (c) brown beans (d) yellow beans

10. The breakdown of food into smaller particles is called (a) absorption (b) digestion (c) metabolism (d) nutrition

11. Gathers can be used on the following except (a) arm holes (b) skirts (c) skirt sleeve (d) shorts

12. The treatment given to fabrics after construction to improve their appearance are called fabric _____ (a) neatening (b) decoration (c) grains (d) finishing

13. Which of the following is important for healthy teeth (a) fluoride (b) chloride (c) nutrient (d) protein

14. Preservation of fruits and other food items in hygienically sealed containers Is known as (a) cribbing (b) canning (c) freezing (d) candling

15. The part of sewing machine that raises and lowers the needle is _____ (a) fabrics (b) bobbin case (c) presser foot (d) balance wheel

16. _____ is a piece of material into a garment to replace the worn- out part or hole (a) fastening (b) darning (c) patching (d) print- patch

17. To determine the presence of fats and oil in food, place _____ over the food (a) palm oil (b) iodine (c) blotting paper (d) test tube

18. A meal that is made up of appetizer, main dish and dessert is called (a) third course meal (b) three course meal (c) meal planning (d) balanced diet

19. The method of cooking food by direct contact with boiling water is called (a) stewing (b) steaming (c) roasting (d) boiling

20. The area of home economics that deals with the study of food processing and preservation is (a) consumer education (b) housing and interior decoration (c) family living (d) food and nutrition

21. Horizontal fashion lines are suitable for (a) short and stout figure (b) huge and muscular figure (c) tall and slim figure (d) small and petite figure

22. Iodine is used for testing for the presence of _____ (a) cellulose (b) sugar (c) starch (d) fat

23. _____ helps to regulate the body processes (a) protein (b) water (c) fat (d) mineral salts

24. A process whereby household refuse is used as manure for agriculture is (a) fertile (b) fertilizer (c) compost making (d) fertilization

25. The nerves of smell which run from the nose to the brain are called _____ (a) vertical nerve (b) smelling nerve (c) olfactory nerve (d) cartilage

26. The process of preventing harmful bacteria from growing in food is known as _____ (a) food hygiene (b) food spoilage (c) food storage (d) food service

27. A line of stitching that joins two or more pieces of cloth is called_____ (a) edge (b) stitching (c) seam (d) facing

28. _____ is ususally made by folding the edge of a garment to the wrong side twice and sewing it up (a) hem (b) edge (c) sagging (d) opening

29. Fibres are general classifies into major groups, mention them; (a) fabric and cotton (b) natural fibre and man- made fibre (c) cellulose- based and cotton (d) plant fibres and vegetable fibres

30. Substances which aid the removal of dirts from fabric are called laundry _____ (a) agencies (b) agents (c) supports (d) troughs

31. Incorrect threading of sewing machine can lead to constant _____ (a) stitching (b) breaking of machine (c) breaking of thread (d) joining of thread

32. One of the following is not suitable for the skin (a) toilet soap (b) moisturizing cream (c) bleaching cream (d) cleansing cream

33. Red, yellow and blue are _____ colours (a) lower (b) primary (c) secondary (d) tertiary

34. To give appearance of height, a short and plum figure is advised to wear (a) vertical fashion lines (b) horizontal fashion lines (c) diagonal fashion lines (d) drapes and gentiles flares

35. Which of the following should be removed from clothes before storage? (a) brooches and pins (b) collars and cuffs (c) button and zips (d) sleeves and collars

36. In clothing construction, _____ is used to close openings firmly (a) fastenings (b) buttons (c) belts (d) ties

37. One of the following does not belong to the group (a) herring- bone stitch (b) stem stitch (c) chain stitch (d) hemming stitch

Section b

38. _____ are used to complement or complete our dressing

39. _____, when burnt smells like burning feathers

40. Palm oil is a good source of vitamin _____

41. _____ is used to protect the middle finger when sewing

42. A meal that contains all classes of foods in the right proportion is called _____

43. _____ is the oldest method of food preservation

44. _____ and _____ are examples of materials that are used in producing combs

45. A long time ago, the subject, home economics was known as _____

46. Baking is often done in a _____

47. _____ is a place for keeping important personal belongings

48. STDs are diseases spread through _____

49. Hair grows from a narrow tube in the skin known as _____

50. _____ is responsible for the protection of the eye from foreign objects

51. _____ is responsible for the regulation of temperature in the body

52. _____ is the part of the tooth projecting just above the gum

53. The short span of time which marks the beginning of sexual maturation is known as _____

54. A collective term which describes a variety of textile articles used in the home is called _____

55. Types of pleats include _____, _____ and _____

56. Acetate rayon belongs to the category of _____

57. Those things which the family desire that are not survival are called _____ needs

58. The body outline or shape of a person is his/ her _____

59. The basic pattern drafted to the exact size of the body is known as _____

60. Lack of proper care of the eye can lead to the need to wear _____

61. Cooking food in hot oil is known as _____

Section C

Answer 3 questions from this section

1. In a tabular form, state the food nutrients, their functions and 4 food sources for each nutrients

2. State 3 causes of food poisoning

(b) State 5 guidelines to prevent food poisoning

(d) State 3 causes of food spoilage

3. Mention 3 forms by which carbohydrates appear

(b) State 4 effects of heat on protein

(d) Mention 6 factors that influence meal planning

4. Mention 5 parts of the teeth

(b) State 4 ways of caring for the teeth

CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS (CCA) MOCK EXAMINATION QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

SUBJECT: CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS

CLASS: JSS 3

TIME APPROVED: 1HR 30MINS

Section A (answer all questions from this section)

1) Which of these art materials is in one colour a) Colour b) Crayon c) Charcoal d) Chalk.

2) Motif is _______ a) A unit or singular part of a design b) dominant theme in art. c).

Main colour used in Textile d) Harmony.

3) The most important function of a poster is to ________ a) Show picture on board b) Show

directional c) Communicate some information to the public c) Show direction to

read users d) Advertise shoe & bag.

4) Pots are fired in______ a) an oven b) a furnaces c). a kiln. d). The Kitchen.

5) Which of these elements of art stimulate the sense of touch. a). Line. b). Colour. c).

Form. d). Texture.

6) Drama is a part of performing art that deals with _______ a)Sound and body movement.

b) Sleeping &performing. c). Drumming & dancing d) Drawing & painting.

7) The following are materials for crocheting EXCEPT ________ a). Ball of wool. b) A tape

measure c).Crochet hook d) Caustic soda.

8) Another name for ABSTRACT ART is ________ a). Regular shapes b). Nonrepresentational

shapes c). Geometric shapes d). Nonfigurative shapes.

9) The painting of sea and ocean is known as _________ a). Landscape. b). Ocean scape c)

Seascape. d). River scape.

10) Another name for calligraphy is ____________ a) typeface b). Pen lettering. c). Handwriting.

d). Hieroglyphics.

11) What category of people is called artist a) Everybody b) Painters and sculpture c) Nobody at all

d) Creative writers only.

12) The letters that represent the musical note are _____ a) First 10 letters b) First 4 letters c)

First 7 letters d) First 12 letters

13) A branch of Art that is connected with appealing to man’s sense of beauty and emotion is

______a) Graphics art b) Applied art c)Fine art d) Literary art

14) The following are example of crafts products EXCEPT ______ a) Embroidery b) Drawing c).

Basket d). Cane chair.

15) A large hall where art works are display and sold to the public is called _____ a) Studio b)

Museum c) Gallery d) Market.

16) Educative is one of the function of _____ a). Drama b). Music c). Drawing d). Dance.

17) The study of cultural and creative art deals with . a) Animals b) Teaching c) Painting d) Humans.

18) The early man wrote and drew on ______a ) His palm b). Paper c). Outside his cave d). At the

wall of his cave.

19) Letters can be classified into______ a). Romans and Gothic b). Egyptian and Romans c). Block

and Scripts d). Cap and low.

20) Both capital and small letters are otherwise known as______ respectively. a). Long and short

case b). Oriental and continental c). Upper and lower case d). Bold & narrow.

21) Good spellings is essential in lettering for ________ a). Structure design b). Economy of paper

c). Judicious use of space d) Legibility.

22) The oldest of all Cultural art in Nigeria is ______a). Nok b). Benin c). Ife d). Igbo-ukwu.

23) The method by which fabric are decorated with thread is _______ a). Stitches b). Knitting c)

Embroidery d). Macramé.

24) Which of the following is an example of complementary colour? ______ a). Blue & purple b)

Yellow & purple c). Red& yellow d) Red & purple.

25) A drawing which a human being poses for an artist to draw is called ________ drawing a)

Nature b). Posing c). Life d). Still life.

26) Water colour painting is best rendered with________ a). Marker b). Sable brush c). Painting

brush d). Bristle brush.

27) If one primary colour is mixed with one secondary colour , it forms _______ colour a). Tried

b). Tertiary c). Complementary _d). Monochrome.

28) What material is best in painting? a). Clay. b). Water c). Oil. d). Colour.

29) _______ lettering are drawn or constructed. a). Pen lettering. b). Script lettering d)

Block lettering d) Constructed.

30) The drawing of house utensils is called ______ a). General drawing. b). Still life

drawing. c). Nature drawing. d). Life drawing.

31) The arrangement of colour on a chart is called ___________ a). Colour wheel. b)

Format. c). Shapes of colour. d). Sphere.

32) Embroidery is made on __________ a) Drawing board. b) Leather c) Canvas d)

Cloth.

33) The symbol of Sango deity is identified with ______ a) Cutlass. b). Hammer. c). Axe d). Rod.

34) An artist who either models an object or carves wood is called a ________ a). Curator. b)

Sculptor. c) Module. d) Carpenter.

35) An object placed in a way to see the top is _________ a) Below the eye level b) On the eye

level c) Beside the eye level d) Above the eye level.

36) Reading, movement , acting and expression are the activities involved in ______ a)

Playing b) Rehearsal c) Singing d) drama.

37) Which of the following is not a painter’s tool. a). Brush. b). Pallet c) colour. d) Squeegee.

38) Which of the following is associated with BATIK. a) Developer b) Tool c) Thread d)

Wax.

39) Paper Marche is a medium for _____ a) Sculpture b). Painting. c). Construction. d) Drama.

40) Canvas is mostly used in _______ a) Textile b) Ceramics c) Sculpture d) Painting.

41) Soap stone carvings were discovered in the following towns in Nigeria a) Ekoi and Esie b) Ife

and Benin c) Ibadan and Ogoja d) Lagos and Jos.

42) Nature drawing refers to _______a) Drawing of Table b) Drawing of Land c)Plant and animal

drawing d) Person drawing.

43) The art of Modelling and Carving is known as _______ a) Graphics b) Ceramics c) Drawing

d0 Sculpture.

44) _______ is used to preserve wet clay. a) Basket b) Plate c) Polythene d) Paper.

45) Clay is to sculpture as Chisel is to _______ a) Drawing b) Sculpture c) Painting d) Drama.

46) _____ and _______ are the main types of Perspective. a) Linear and Upper b) Angular

and parallel c) Linear and Arial d) Angular and Horizontal.

47) Carving involves a) Adding b) Chipping and Adding c) Subtracting d) None of the above.

48) The pre-historic people lived in ______ a) House b) Store c) Hot d) cave.

49) The word CRAFT simply means _______ a) Portraite b) Hand work c) Machine product

d)Industrial arts.

50) Ife Art culture is located in ____ state. a)Oyo state b) Osun state c) Ogun state d) Ibadan.

51) Aina Onabolu was born in which year? A) 1890 b) 1882 c) 1950 d) 1960.

52) The earliest form of music was ____ a) Nature base b) Drum base c) Sound base d) Record.

53) Theatre Design is otherwise known as ______ a) Beauty De) sign b) Photo Design c)

Scenography Design d) Light Design.

54) _____ is the movement of human body, typically and rhythmic to a musical sound a) Music b)

Sound c) Drama d) Dance.

55) Classical music is rooted in a country called ____ a) Egypt b) Rome c) Greece d) Nigeria

56) All of these are the component of colour EXCEPT a) Hue b) Water c) Intensity d) Value.

57) In psychology self control is sometimes called _____ a) Self- regulation b) self confidence c)

Self control d) self evaluation.

58) Which of the following is not a drawing instrument ?a) Charcoal b) squeegee c) Pen d) Pencil.

59) An object placed in a way to see the top is _________ a) Below the eye level b) On the eye

level c) Beside the eye level d) Above the eye level.

60) A large hall where art works are display and sold to the public is called _____ a) Studio b) Museum c) Gallery d) Market.

Section B (answer 3 questions only)

1) What is Paper Mache

b) Explain the process involved in tie dye.

2) List and explain any two types of motifs.

b) List any five (5) materials needed for knitting and crocheting.

3) Define Art Terminologies ?

b) Discuss any three way of generating income through arts.

4) Construct any 10 ten letters of alphabet.

b) List five contemporary Nigerian Artist with their areas of specialization.

5) Define the concept of Dance.

b) Explain any two activities involved in rehearsal.

BUSINESS STUDIES MOCK ***EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Subject: BUSINESS STUDIES Duration: 2HRS Class: JSS 3

SECTION A: INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

1. A good receptionist must possess the following qualities except ______ (a) loyal to the organisation (b) punctual at work (c) must not be aggressive (d) must stay in office for 24 hours

2. A place where buyers and sellers meet to transact business is called ______ (a) shop (b) market (c) trade (d) school

3. The department which deals with staff matters is ______ (a) personnel department (b) finance department (c) purchasing department (d) sales department

4. Labour is rewarded with ______ (a) rent (b) profit (c) capital (d) wages and salaries

5. A retailer is the one who ______ (a) specializes in industrial goods (b) sells to wholesalers (c) buys in small quantities from the wholesaler and sell to the consumer in units (d) none of the above.

6. An office material in which personal data of staff are kept is called ______ (a) table (b) wood box (c) file cabinet (d) jacket

7. The fastest means of transportation is _______ (a) land (b) air (c) pipeline (d) water.

8. One of the following is not an office equipment. (a) printer (b) perforator (c) recharge card (d) typewriter.

9. A telephone operator must be _______. (a) heady (b) neat (c) kind (d) polite

10. C.O.D means _______ (a) cost of delivery (b) cash on delivery (c) cash of delivery (d) cash on delay

11. Aids to trade consists of ______ (a) banking (b) insurance (c) advertising (d) all of the above

12. One of the following is not an element of Business studies? (a) book keeping (b) physics (c) keyboarding (d) commerce

13. Which of the following is not extractive occupation? (a) farming (b) fishing (c) mining (d) driving.

14. A type of advertising meant for the public to introduce new products is called _____ (a) informative (b) persuasive (c) competitive (d) mass and specific

15. The method in which duties are carried out in respect of performance of business activities of an organization is called _______ (a) office procedure (b) business studies (c) service render (d) office performance

16. One of the functions of the Central Bank of Nigeria is to ______ (a) give loans to traders (b) carry money from Lagos to Abuja (c) print passport photographs (d) mint country’s currencies

17. Which of the following is not used for transporting goods and people on seas? (a) canoe (b) ferry (c) trailer (d) boat

18. The following are examples of advertising media except _____(a) radio (b) television (c) textbook (d) magazine

19. The following are procedures for making payment except _____ (a) payment by bank draft (b) payment by cash (c) payment by receipt (d) payment by cheque

20. The money used in starting business is called _______ (a) cash at hand (b) cash at bank (c) cheque (d) capital

21. Coal mining is an example of _____ (a) direct service (b) tertiary production (c) indirect service (d) extractive industry

22. The profit given to shareholders of a company is ______ (a) dividend (b) bond (c) share (d) divide

23. The role of insurance in commerce is ______(a) invest premium earned in business (b) prevent wasteful venture (c) minimise business risks (d) identify businessmen for loss

24. Furnitures and fittings are examples of _____ assets (a) fixed (b) current (c) circulating (d) floating

25. A device used to aid the effective performance of a worker in an office is _______ (a) office equipment (b) electric fan (c) transported device (d) opener

26. The insurance policy on goods transported on water is known as ________ (a) third party (b) burglary (c) compensation (d)marine

27. Moving goods from Nigeria to Ghana is called _______ (a) export trade (b) gift of unit (c) import trade (d) production (e) retail trade

28. The act of passing information from one place to the other is called _____ (a) ware housing (b) communication (c) advertising (d) transportation

29. A type of business owned and run by one person is known as _____ (a) co-operative (b) sole proprietorship (c) company (d) partnership

30. Division of labour _______ output (a) decreases (b) disallows (c) increases (d) releases

31. _______ is the arrangement of wants according to priority. (a) choice (b) scarcity (c) scale of preference (d) opportunity cost

32. A trade between two or more countries is called _____ (a) international trade (b) local trade (c) domestic trade (d) home trade

33. Another name for home trade is _______ (a) foreign trade (b) international trade (c) cosmetic trade (d) domestic trade

34. The following are documents used in buying and selling except ______ (a) order (b) catalogue (c) invoice (d) visitor’s book

35. The money used to start business is recorded on which side of the cash book? (a) debit side (b) credit side (c) creditor side (d) debtor side

36. A/C means ____ (a) accompany (b) account (c) accountant (d) acquired

37. The apex bank in Nigeria is ______ (a) Zenith bank (b) Federal Apex Bank (c) National Apex Bank (d) Central Bank of Nigeria

38. Exchange of goods for goods is called ______ (a) barter (b) sales (c) trade (d) butter

39. The following can be insured against except _______ (a) gambling (b) goods (c) building (d) life

40. The following businesses are legal except ______ (a) carpentry (b) smuggling (c) teaching (d) trading

41. Petty cash book is used to _______ (a) record minor expenses (b) pay staff salaries (c) record goods sold on credit (d) record bank transactions

42. Asset means _______ (a) properties (b) liabilities (c) debtor (d) creditor

43. The person who owns, runs and establishes business is called _______ (a) entrepreneur (b) diligence (c) hardworking (d) coordinator

44. The physical counting of the stock in the store at a particular time is known as _____ (a) stock record (b) stock taking (c) stock control (d) stock working

45. A telephone call within a town is called ______ (a) emergency (b) trunk (c) local (d) sudden

46. A method of paragraphing where all lines start at the margin is known as _________ (a) hanging paragraph (b) block paragraph (c) indented paragraph (d(open paragraph

47. _______ is the estimate of income and expenditure over a specific period of time. (a) budget (b) bonus (c) divided (d) share

48. _______ are entered on the debit side of profit and loss accounts. (a) expenses (b) income (c) cash (d) losses

49. All the following are natural products except _______ (a) groundnut (b) timber (c) ships (d) cotton

50. The collaboration of people living together in a particular geographical area having a common custom, values, cultural laws and mutual interest is ______ (a) market (b) consumer (c) education (d) society

51. Which of the following advertising media is suitable for demonstrating Omo detergent? (a) newspaper (b) magazine (c) radio (d) television

52. The place where typewriters are kept is called _______ (a) store room (b) typing house (c) typing pool (d) typing room.

53. Olufolabi has N 800 in her bank account but withdraws N 1200. How much overdraft have been granted to her (a) N 1000 (b) N 800 (c) N 700 (d) N 400

54. A clerical staff performs the following functions except _______ (a) direct visitors to executive’s office (b) laundering for the boss (c) file documents (d) running official errands

55. The aid to trade that involves the movement of goods and people to where they are needed is ______ (a) communication (b) transportation (c) banking (d) advertising

56. Which of the following is not a quality of a good receptionist? (a) bluffing (b) attentiveness (c) courtesy (d) tactfulness

57. A trial balance shows the _______ of all entries in ledger accounts (a) asset accounts (b) arithmetical accuracy (c) balance (d) mathematical calculations

58. The document used for withdrawal of cash from current account is ______ (a) ATM (b) cheque (c) counter cheque (d) pay slip

59. The chemicals with household uses and can be purchased in local stores is called _________ (a) toxic chemicals (b) dangerous chemicals (c) suitable chemicals (d) hazardous chemicals

60. Irregularity at work may attract ______ (a) punishment (b) favour (c) promotion (d) transfer.

SECTION B :ANSWER QUESTION 4 AND ANY OTHER TWO QUESTIONS.

1a. Define (i) consumer right (ii) consumer redress

b. List and explain 2 just ways of seeking redress c. Outline 4 benefits of providing redress

2a. Explain the concept of personal finance b. Outline 5 sources of finance for individuals

c. Explain 3 types of budget.

3a. Define modesty b. List 5 attributes of modesty

c. State 2 differences between modesty and extravagance

4. Draw up trading, profit and loss account for the year ended December, 2020, from the trial balance of MICHEAL Nig. Ltd. below :

Dr. Cr.

Opening stock. 1,200

Sales. 28,800

Purchases. 23,800

Rent and rate. 900

Salaries and wages. 3,200

Furniture & fittings. 1,000

General expenses. 500

Note: The closing stock is #4,200

4b. list 4 uses of trading, profit and loss account.

5a. Write short note on the following : i. Balance sheet ii. Profit and loss account

iii. Trial balance iv. Trading account.

b. Draw the comprehensive format for trading, profit and loss account

MUSIC MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Subject: MUSIC

Class: Js s 3

Duration:3HRS

1. Every minor scale starts on the _________degree of a major scale (a) 3^rd (b) 6^th (c) 5^th (d) 2^nd

2. _______ is an activity of making musical sound with voice in the form of a song or tune (a) singing

(b) Dancing (c) playing (d) giving

3. A solo singer should pronounce the words distinctly and sing with _____________ (a) frowning

(b) Expression (c) toes (d) fight

4. The short extra line drawn above or below the stave is called the _________ (a) space line (b) ledger

line (c) quaver (d) dotted line

5. F A C E is letter names of the spaces on the ___________ staff (a) alto (b) bass (c) treble (d) tenor

6. The ‘Ekwe’ African musical instrument belongs to ____________ family (a) Idiophone (b) Aerophone

7. What is this sign called ? (a) Natural sign (b) Flat sign (c) Sharp sign (d) Crotchet sign

8. In a major scale, semitone occur between BC and ___________ (a) GB (b) EF (c) CD (d) DG

9. A great stave consists of both the treble and the bass stave with ________ between them

(a) middle D (b) middle G (c) middle C (d) middle F

10. ___________ sign increases the pitch of a note by semitone (a) flat (b) sharp (c) natural (d) none

11. To mathematics is ‘octagon’, to music is _________(a) collage (b) octave (c) humidity (d) compass

12. Naturally there is a tone between _______________ (a) EF (b) BG (c) AB (d) CG

13. One of the following composers was born during baroque period (a) W A Mozart (b) G F Handel

14. The root position of the tonic triad of C major is_________ (a) F A C (b) C E G (c) G B D (d) D E F

15. Name the triad below

(a) G maj. Triad (b) A maj. Triad (c) F maj. Triad (d) C maj. Triad

16. How many semitones make a tone? (a) Three (b) four (c) five (d) two

17. The Italian/musical term ‘fortissimo’ means (a) very slow (b) very fast (c) very loud (d) none

18. The musical symbol used to represent the length or duration of a musical sound is known as ______

(a) Musical staff (b) musical note (c) musical clef (d) musical tape

19. The example of the music played at the king’s palace is called__________ (a) secular music (b) Afro

music (c) court music (d) hip-hop music

20. What is this musical instrument called?

(a) Ekwe (b) talking drum (c) Molo (d) Gong

21. The performance of three(3) people singing at the same time is musically called ____________

(a) quartet (b) Trio (c) Duet (d) minuet

22. The word “Italian Term” is used in music because the origin of music can be traced to________ (a) Rome (b) America (c) Lagos (d) Germany

23. Which of the following major scale is associated with two sharp key signatures? (a) G major

(b) A major (c) D major (d) C major

24. How many people used to perform Trio? (a) three (b) two (c) four (d) five

25. The _________ consists of two fractional figures placed at the beginning of the staff.

(a) Rock signature (b) time signature (c) moon signature (d) fuel signature

26. An interval in music is best described as the musical ________ between two pitches or notes.

(a) Duration (b) distance (c) dot (d) note

27. To determine the position and pitch of a scale, ______ must be placed at beginning of staff (a) slur

(b) Clef sign (c) bar sign (d) note clef

28. The interval bellow is a/an

(a) Major 3^rd (b) perfect 5^th (c) Augmented 3^rd (d) minor 6th

29. The following are triple time signature except (a) (b) (c) (d)

30. Which of these musical forms has two section (AB) formulae? (a) Binary (b) ternary (c) Rondo (d) none

31. A musical scale with eight notes both ascending and descending order is called the ______ scale (a) Pentatonic (b) diatonic (c) chromatic (d) melodic

32. The accidental sign used to increase the pitch of a note by a semitone is __________ (a)flat sign (b) sharp sign (c) Natural sign (d) accidental sign

33. This musical note ‘ ‘ has how many beats? (a) four (b) three (c) five (d) two

34. The ledger line below the treble clef is known as_____ (a) D (b) C (c) A (d) E

35. ________ music is a type of music that has to do with only musical instruments (a) instrumental (b) vocals (c) choristers (d) monumental

Use the music below to answer question 26-30

36. How many bars are there in the music?

37. On which key is the music composed?

38. What is the clef sign used?

39. The last note in bar 4 has how many beats?

40. What is the time signature given to the music?

41. Which of the following is an highlife musician? (a) Ayo bankole (b) Victor Olaiya (c) banky W (d) TKE Philips

42. Every major scale has it DOMINANT on the _____ degree (a) 5^th (b) 3^rd (c) 4^th(d) 6^th

43. The relative minor scale to F major is ____ (a) A min. (b) C min. (c) D min. (d) G min.

44. _________ lowers a note by semitone in pitch (a) Flat (b) sharp (c) natural (d) Note

45. Solo is for one person, quartet is for ___ people (a) four (b) five (c) six (d) Ten

46. Who among the following composer is a Nigerian? (a) W.A Mozart (b) T K E Philip (c) G.F Handel (d) Henry purcel

47. The African musical instrument called “sekere” is commonly found among the _______ tribe (a) Igbo (b) Hausa (c) Yoruba (d) Efik

48. One of the characteristics of a soloist is to sing with___(a) expression (b) frowning (c) growl (d) none

49. B major scale has ____ sharps as it key signature (a) six (b) five (c) three (d) seven

50. The letter name of the 5^th line on the bass clef is______ (a) D (b) A (c) F (d) C

PART B: Answer

1. (a) What is Cadences (b) Mention four types of cadences

2. Explain the following: (i) Solo (ii) Duet (iii) Trio (iv) Quartet (v) Singing

3. Invert the triad below

i ii iii iv v

4. Write the relative minor or major of the following keys

(a) i. G major _____________

ii D minor ______________

iii C major _______________

iv F minor ______________

v. B major ______________

(b). List Five (5) Nigerian highlife musician you know

1 hours read

3 Comments

Fasakin Oluwayemisi says:

May 15, 2025 at 1:39 pm

Mock questions for jss 3 student

1. Omotola says:
  
  April 13, 2026 at 10:28 am
  
  It is for js 3, but i suppose answer will help better for confirmation
  
Adolade Raphael says:

March 11, 2026 at 7:52 pm

Hi

MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR JSS3 – Edudelight.com

PART B- THEORY: SECTION A- LETTER WRITING/COMPOSITION

BASIC SCIENCE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

BASIC TECHNOLOGY MOCK EXAMINATION QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

THEORY: Answer only three question

JSS3 MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS P.H.E – EDUDELIGHT.COM

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY MOCK EXAMINATION QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

SECTION B (Theory)

MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR JSS3 MATHEMATICS – Edudelight.com

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES (CRS) MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

SOCIAL STUDIES MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

CIVIC EDUCATION MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

THEORY.: Answer Only 3 Question

SECURITY EDUCATION MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

HOME ECONOMICS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS (CCA) MOCK EXAMINATION QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

BUSINESS STUDIES MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

MUSIC MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM

Read Next

FOOD AND NUTRITION EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS3

GEOGRAPHY MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS3

FURTHER MATHS MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS3

ACCOUNTING MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS3

Read Also

3 Comments

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

FARM RECORD (CONTINUED)

HOME ECONOMICS EXAM QUESTIONS FOR JSS1 THIRD TERM

ENGLISH EXAM QUESTIONS FOR SS2 SECOND TERM

BASIC SCIENCE MOCK ***EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

BASIC TECHNOLOGY MOCK ***EXAMINATION QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

**AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE MOCK EXAM QUESTIONS JSS*3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

**HOME ECONOMICS MOCK *EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***

BUSINESS STUDIES MOCK ***EXAM QUESTIONS JSS3 – EDUDELIGHT.COM***